The case is closed. High priests admitted in front of a camera that the light lights from physical sources, and the Orthodox Patriarchate in Jerusalem changed the wording in their site from "miracle" to "ceremony".
The Patriarchate sued the journalist, but lost the case.
Turn on English or other...
I don't think I have actually. The text is from Christian Bible, that is why I asked if you agree with the translation.
Does God condemn slavery? No! Not only he allows it, but gives instructions of how to treat slaves. Are slaves his creatures, or is he only interested in the Jews and...
I think you missed my point which is that God allows the beating of slaves because they are considered "property", as long as they do not die as a result of the beating. The slave owner will not be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two.
Unless you don't agree with the translated wording.
Does this mean that you agree with people being used as property and can be passed to one's children (Leviticus 25:44-46) and that a master can beat slaves with a rod, as long as they do not die, because they are his property (Exodus 21:20-21)?
So you can not explain how one's spiritual eyes are opened.
Do you know at least what is the procedure, if one has to act in a certain way prior to this miracle and how you realize that your spiritual eyes have opened?
Two questions..
1) How does God open your spiritual eyes, in order to see (as you wrote) that the Bible is infallible?
2) Talking of Bible's infallibility, do you think the Bible is infallible with regard to moral instructions?
No, that is not true. We have all shown you verses from the Bible supporting our claims. You have been the one who has shown us NONE for your weird claims. I doubt whether you or most Christians have ever read the whole Bible., as a lot of atheists/agnostics have done.
They never accepted him...
Wow... so you are going for the looks, not for the mind..:laughing:
Well, I will become a devout Christian if you show me where exactly the Bible claims that..:laughing:
As you wish, but remember that initially Christianity wanted to convert the Jews. So they were looking for "prophecies" to show that they were referred to Jesus. Of course Jews were not fools.
Read Isaiah 7:1-18 and tell me in all honesty, if there is 1 in a million chance that it refers to Jesus.
I agree that the Bible doesn't say it, but Isaiah 53:2 does not refer to Jesus. The servant is Israel.
See Isaiah 41:8-9 and Isaiah 43:10-11 (note the plural).
This story of the thief is very complicated, if ever happened. For a start whilst the two thieves appear in both Mark and Matthew (both mocking Jesus), only Luke claims that one said “Jesus, remember me when you come in your kingly power”. Are these words sufficient for salvation?
Secondly Jesus...
No, works are the means of salvation according to Jesus. Even if you believe he is the Lord and have faith in him you will not be saved without works.
Couldn't be written and evidenced better...
“Not every one who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the...
:laughing::laughing::laughing::laughing::laughing:
In 2001, forensic anthropologist Richard Neave created a model of what a Galilean man looked like for a BBC documentary, working on the basis of actual skulls found in the region. Sorry to destroy your dreams, but Jesus would look similar to this.
Whether the Oxford dictionary existed or not, is irrelevant. The actual Hebrew word used here and translated “sorry” is nacham and it means, “to be sorry”, or “moved to pity” or “grieved”.
So you were caught not knowing that.
You argued that it does not mean sorry. You were very wrong!!
What you are writing is weird.
Definitions from Oxford Languages:
repent:
1) feel or express sincere regret or remorse about one's wrongdoing or sin.
2) view or think of (an action or omission) with deep regret or remorse.
So let me rephrase my question to your liking, although is the same...
Before you write all this, which I personally consider it nonsense, shouldn't you first show some evidence of your writings?
Even if you use the Bible (despite being circular reasoning).
For example, can God be sorry for something he did?
It's not a matter of interpretation. The Bible describes how John the Baptist welcomed Jesus for the baptism, also all the "wonderful things" that happened with God's voice adopting Jesus and the Holy Spirit descending....but a few months later, John does not know who Jesus is and questions him...
No, it would make no sense. For the sun to stop moving in the sky, the Earth must stop spinning on its axis with horrendous results. If the sun stopped and the Earth continued spinning, we would have normal sunrise and sunset times without any apparent stoppage of the sun in the sky, but would...
That reminds me of the saying that God made our face, nose and ears so perfect...for our glasses to fit.
That is exactly the point. Having too many authors over centuries, talking about God, but not fully agree with each other (Christians vs, Jews) makes it completely impossible for the whole...