‘I am God and I heard the truth from God’ (John 8:40)

[Soapy]

In John 8:40, Jesus expresses to a group of Jews that he, Jesus, is a man who ‘Heard the Truth from God’.

But shortly after that certain factions of ‘Christianity’ claim that Jesus was calling himself ‘God’ (John 8:58).

Please can the situation be clarified as to how it is to be believed that Jesus declares himself as being man who has received good news from YHWH God yet at the same be that same YHWH God he heard the good news from?

How is this conundrum linked to Acts 10:37-38 in which the writer proclaims that Jesus is a man empowered by God to do good?

Patch in that Jesus never claims to be ‘God’ (An almighty eternal Spirit) but does claim to be ‘a Man’ (A created fleshly human being)!

 

[sun rise]

I take Jesus to be a manifestation of the Avatar - Fully God and fully human - God in human form. And as such at any time he might speak as God which he is or as a human which he also is.

 

[Soapy]

I take Jesus to be a manifestation of the Avatar - Fully God and fully human - God in human form. And as such at any time he might speak as God which he is or as a human which he also is.

How would he decide to speak as God when he clearly is a man?

How would he decide to speak as Man when he (you say) is clearly God?

Does he have to deny his Godship to speak as man (say, in order to not know something that, as God, he obviously knows?)

If he is God, how does he allow sinfulness in his presence when scriptures says that God abhors sin?
Are you implying that the flesh body of man shields the power of an almighty God limiting his powers on earth?

 

[Twilight Hue]

In John 8:40, Jesus expresses to a group of Jews that he, Jesus, is a man who ‘Heard the Truth from God’.

But shortly after that certain factions of ‘Christianity’ claim that Jesus was calling himself ‘God’ (John 8:58).

Please can the situation be clarified as to how it is to be believed that Jesus declares himself as being man who has received good news from YHWH God yet at the same be that same YHWH God he heard the good news from?

How is this conundrum linked to Acts 10:37-38 in which the writer proclaims that Jesus is a man empowered by God to do good?

Patch in that Jesus never claims to be ‘God’ (An almighty eternal Spirit) but does claim to be ‘a Man’ (A created fleshly human being)!

It's people who wrote this stuff.

There's bound to be errors and contradictions in redacted literature.

 

[sun rise]

Does he have to deny his Godship to speak as man (say, in order to not know something that, as God, he obviously knows?)

How can a dog understand the nature of the mind of people? Of course that's not possible. Similarly, you are asking something that we can't understand because it's far far beyond our minds.

If he is God, how does he allow sinfulness in his presence when scriptures says that God abhors sin?

If you're referring specifically to the New Testament, everything is based on the law of love as the stories of Jesus and the adulteress and Jesus and the prostitute illustrate.

Are you implying that the flesh body of man shields the power of an almighty God limiting his powers on earth?

By becoming a human, God channels the power of love and light into the world through his human form.

 

[It Aint Necessarily So]

In John 8:40, Jesus expresses to a group of Jews that he, Jesus, is a man who ‘Heard the Truth from God’.

But shortly after that certain factions of ‘Christianity’ claim that Jesus was calling himself ‘God’ (John 8:58).

Please can the situation be clarified as to how it is to be believed that Jesus declares himself as being man who has received good news from YHWH God yet at the same be that same YHWH God he heard the good news from?

I've always understood that to mean that Jesus never thought of himself nor claimed to be divine, but that as the religion evolved in its early days, the idea that he said the opposite was added. It's a little like the problem with the use of plurals such as Elohim combined with the idea of one god. I assume it indicates evolution in thought from a kind of polytheism/henotheism to monotheism. The before and after writings seem to contradict one another.

 

[TreeOfLife]

I've always understood that to mean that Jesus never thought of himself nor claimed to be divine, but that as the religion evolved in its early days, the idea that he said the opposite was added. It's a little like the problem with the use of plurals such as Elohim combined with the idea of one god. I assume it indicates evolution in thought from a kind of polytheism/henotheism to monotheism. The before and after writings seem to contradict one another.

Jesus declares himself in rev 3.14 to be the first creation of God. Most Christians believe he is jehovah or the God of the old Testament. In Isaiah 45.11 jehovah states he has a maker of which I assume is God the Father