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3 questions about Jesus's resurrection

punkdbass

I will be what I will be
Hello, I have recently began to read the New Testament and have a few questions on the topic of Jesus's resurrection. And let me first say I am really enjoying my reading of the New Testament(just finished Luke) and I am not here to argue but to learn.

1. Jesus often says that his death and resurrection 3 days later were prophesied in the Old Testament, for example Luke 24:44-47. Where in the Old Testament does it say the messiah will die and rise 3 days later? I did a little bit a research on this but didnt find a whole lot.

2. Jesus constantly refers to his death and resurrection as the "sign of Jonah." I am having trouble understanding how the story of Jonah and Jesus are similar though, and was wondering if you could help? For example, Jonah tries hiding from God and ends up in the belly of a whale for 3 days, and in the end proclaims his message of repentance to the nation of nineveh. Jesus on the other hand doesnt run from God but rather actively pursues the fulfillment of his mission.. and after his resurrection, he doesn't re-proclaim his message of repentance to the nation of Israel but rather only visits a few individuals? How are these 2 stories supposed to be similar? Maybe you guys can help me better understand why Jesus refers to his resurrection as the sign of Jonah.

3. This question is sort of related to question 2, but why after Jesus's resurrection did he only choose to reveal himself to a few individuals and not the entire nation of Israel(or at least a large percent of it)? Jesus told the Pharisees that they would recieve the sign of Jonah.. yet after his resurrection Jesus didnt appear to any of the pharisees..or did he?

Thanks
 

Green Kepi

Active Member
#1 - His role as a prophet in Deuteronomy 18:15-20; His sufferings were prophesied in Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53, His resurrection was predicted in Psalm 16:9-11 and Isaiah 53.

#2 – The Book of Jonah reveals that even in the Old Testament God did not forget the Gentiles. When God chose Abraham, in effect He said to the Gentiles. “I’m going to have to leave you for awhile because of the sin that has come into the human family. I’m going to prepare salvation for you thru a man and a nation, and I’ll bring a redeemer to save you. I will write Romans 3:29 over the Book of Jonah in your Scriptures.

#3 – Because He’s now giving the Great Commission for Christians to spread the Word. His time/mission was completed here on this earth (at this present time).


Maybe this helps, somewhat...I don't have time, at this moment, to go into greater details...later?
 

Terrywoodenpic

Oldest Heretic
You are going to engender some discussion here.
Most, but not all, Christians Use the Jewish scriptures to confirm by prophecy, events in the New testament writings.

I find that both disturbing and quite unnecessary. The events of Jesus birth, life,death and resurrection are established as true by those who witnessed the events, and were recorded by the Gospel writers.
You are free, like any Christian is, to have faith in them or not.
Like all religious events they may be either completely true, or more likely the stories may be exaggerated , even bent, to fit a believer's, or writers expectations.

The events in the four Gospels are the foundation of Christian faith.They are the closest we are likely to get to the life and work and teachings of Jesus.

It seems there were either one or two forerunner sources to the Four gospels. The four writers may not have had either complete copies or exact replicas of them. They certainly each redacted them differently, and added original material available to themselves.

If this were not the case all four would be near identical.

As you read the New testament you will find that the writings of Paul had an almost overwhelming influence on the early Christian Church. As did the much later "conferences" under the direction of Roman Emperors.

I would never try to do the Christian trick of reconciling the Old and new Testaments. Those efforts have combined with Greek philosophical thought, and Roman imperialism to result in the numerous branches of Christendom we find today.
 
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Green Kepi

Active Member
If what I referenced was a “trick”…then so be it. Jesus often referred to or quoted from the Old Testament Scriptures to support His teachings.

He told the Jewish leaders, "Well did Esaias [Isaiah] prophesy of you, saying, This people draws near unto me with their mouth, and honored me with their lips; but their heart is far from me," showing He accepted Isaiah's prophecies (Matt. 15:7, 8; - Isa. 29:13).

These leaders were hypocrites just as the leaders in Isaiah's generation were, and Jesus quoted Isaiah to support His point.

Jesus, in a parable about the vineyard and hedge, asked, "Did you never read in the scriptures, the stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvelous in our eyes?" (Matt. 21:42; cf. Ps. 118:22, 23).

This detail prophesied in the Old Testament would be fulfilled by Him. When the Sanhedrin pronounced judgment on Jesus the Messiah and turned him over to the Romans to be put to death, little did they realize this Rejected One would become the Head of the New Covenant.

Jesus may not have left us a formal statement about His view of the Scriptures, but we do know His views from events that occurred in His life. The above Scriptures show that Christ believed the Old Testament Scriptures to be authoritative and true, even in the smallest details. All His teachings about Scripture emphasized His one thought: "Scripture cannot be broken."
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
If I may....

Resurrection in the flesh?...has problems.

If the Carpenter did return in body....and then ascended....
'where' and 'what' do you think the kingdom really is?

If He still possesses His body....
is He hiding His identity?...using false papers and personal ID?
I think not.

The kingdom is not of this world.
Flesh cannot inherit the kingdom.
Resurrection would be spiritual.
 
Hello, I have recently began to read the New Testament and have a few questions on the topic of Jesus's resurrection. And let me first say I am really enjoying my reading of the New Testament(just finished Luke) and I am not here to argue but to learn.

1. Jesus often says that his death and resurrection 3 days later were prophesied in the Old Testament, for example Luke 24:44-47. Where in the Old Testament does it say the messiah will die and rise 3 days later? I did a little bit a research on this but didnt find a whole lot.

2. Jesus constantly refers to his death and resurrection as the "sign of Jonah." I am having trouble understanding how the story of Jonah and Jesus are similar though, and was wondering if you could help? For example, Jonah tries hiding from God and ends up in the belly of a whale for 3 days, and in the end proclaims his message of repentance to the nation of nineveh. Jesus on the other hand doesnt run from God but rather actively pursues the fulfillment of his mission.. and after his resurrection, he doesn't re-proclaim his message of repentance to the nation of Israel but rather only visits a few individuals? How are these 2 stories supposed to be similar? Maybe you guys can help me better understand why Jesus refers to his resurrection as the sign of Jonah.

3. This question is sort of related to question 2, but why after Jesus's resurrection did he only choose to reveal himself to a few individuals and not the entire nation of Israel(or at least a large percent of it)? Jesus told the Pharisees that they would recieve the sign of Jonah.. yet after his resurrection Jesus didnt appear to any of the pharisees..or did he?

Thanks

In answer to #1:
I think the main scripture may be:
Hosea 6
1 “Come, let us return to the LORD. He has torn us to pieces but he will heal us; he has injured us but he will bind up our wounds. 2 After two days he will revive us; on the third day he will restore us, that we may live in his presence.

Also there are many “3rd day” events throughout the Old Testament that symbolically point to Jesus (including the scripture above):
Abraham symbolically receives his Son back to life on the 3rd day - Genesis 22:4
Joseph symbolically receives his brothers back to life on the 3rd say - Genesis 42:18
Joshua and the spies are hidden 3 days from their enemies trying to destroy them - Joshua 2:16
On the 3rd day was the giving of the law - Exodus 19:16
Jonah was symbolically dead 3 days in the fish - Jonah 1:17
On the 3rd day of them that came out of the captivity - Ezra 8:15

In answer to #2:
I think the only similarity between Jonah and Jesus is the fact that Jonah was symbolically dead (in the belly of the fish) for 3 days then symbolically came back to life on the 3rd day. Jesus was also dead and rose on the 3rd day. Back during Jesus time the Jews counted any part of a day as a whole day. Jesus died and was laid in the tomb on Friday (day 1), was there all day Saturday (day2), and rose from the dead on Sunday sometime before dawn (day 3). Therefore he rose on the 3rd day.

In answer to #3:
Jesus did appear to a huge group of people all at once. The scripture says it was MORE THAN 500 people. The Pharisees were probably among them, if not they defiantly heard about that. If more then 500 people experience the same event that is that supernatural in nature, everyone is going to for sure hear about it.

1 Corinthians 15:6 (NIV)
6 After that, he appeared to more than five hundred of the brothers and sisters at the same time, most of whom are still living, though some have fallen asleep.

And remember he directly appeared to the apostle Paul on the road to Damascus (which sparked his conversion). Paul was a Pharisee.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Hello, I have recently began to read the New Testament and have a few questions on the topic of Jesus's resurrection. And let me first say I am really enjoying my reading of the New Testament(just finished Luke) and I am not here to argue but to learn.

1. Jesus often says that his death and resurrection 3 days later were prophesied in the Old Testament, for example Luke 24:44-47. Where in the Old Testament does it say the messiah will die and rise 3 days later? I did a little bit a research on this but didnt find a whole lot.
Isaiah 53:5 But he was being pierced for our transgression; he was being crushed for our errors. The chastisement meant for our peace was upon him, and because of his wounds there has been a healing for us.

Zechariah 12:10 “And I will pour out upon the house of David and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem the spirit of favor and entreaties, and they will certainly look to the One whom they pierced through, and they will certainly wail over Him as in the wailing over an only [son]; and there will be a bitter lamentation over him as when there is bitter lamentation over the firstborn [son].

(Hosea 6:2) He will make us alive after two days. On the third day he will make us get up, and we shall live before him.


Jonah 1:17 Now Jehovah appointed a great fish to swallow Jo′nah, so that Jo′nah came to be in the inward parts of the fish three days and three nights

Christ applied the 'sign of jonah' to his own death.
Matthew 12:40 For just as Jo′nah was in the belly of the huge fish three days and three nights, so the Son of man will be in the heart of the earth three days and three nights
Luke 11:30 For just as Jo′nah became a sign to the Nin′e‧vites, in the same way will the Son of man be also to this generation
What christianity is about is making application of the fulfillment of the hebrew scriptures on the life of Jesus. Jesus came to fulfill the law, and that is why his apostles used the hebrew scriptures to explain the events of the first century

2. Jesus constantly refers to his death and resurrection as the "sign of Jonah." I am having trouble understanding how the story of Jonah and Jesus are similar though, and was wondering if you could help? For example, Jonah tries hiding from God and ends up in the belly of a whale for 3 days, and in the end proclaims his message of repentance to the nation of nineveh. Jesus on the other hand doesnt run from God but rather actively pursues the fulfillment of his mission.. and after his resurrection, he doesn't re-proclaim his message of repentance to the nation of Israel but rather only visits a few individuals? How are these 2 stories supposed to be similar? Maybe you guys can help me better understand why Jesus refers to his resurrection as the sign of Jonah.

Jesus said: “No sign will be given [this generation] except the sign of Jonah the prophet. For just as Jonah was in the belly of the huge fish three days and three nights, so the Son of man will be in the heart of the earth three days and three nights. Men of Nineveh will rise up in the judgment with this generation and will condemn it; because they repented at what Jonah preached, but, look! something more than Jonah is here.” (Mt 12:39-41; 16:4)

because the general population of jews had rejected Jesus message, he condemned them for their lack of faith in there own scriptures and outrightly told them that the only 'sign' they would see would be his resurrection. That would be the absolute proof that Jesus was the messiah and many accepted him after that point.

3. This question is sort of related to question 2, but why after Jesus's resurrection did he only choose to reveal himself to a few individuals and not the entire nation of Israel(or at least a large percent of it)? Jesus told the Pharisees that they would recieve the sign of Jonah.. yet after his resurrection Jesus didnt appear to any of the pharisees..or did he?

Thanks

Jesus appeared only to those who had followed him before his death. At one point he appeared to 500 disciples at one time. They in turn were sent out to preach that jesus had been resurrected and that is how the 'sign of jonah' was given to the rest of the jewish nation. It was not only by the disciples word though... they also were given miraculous powers just as Moses did to show that he was really sent by God. The apostles were able to cure disease and raise the dead and as you read the account of Acts (written by Luke) you will see the many miraculous events recorded that were witnessed by crowds of people.
 

punkdbass

I will be what I will be
Pegg said:
because the general population of jews had rejected Jesus message, he condemned them for their lack of faith in there own scriptures and outrightly told them that the only 'sign' they would see would be his resurrection. That would be the absolute proof that Jesus was the messiah and many accepted him after that point.

Okay, this is exactly what I am confused about. If that was to be the only sign they(the unbelieving Jews) - would receive, then why didnt they receive it? Why didnt Jesus re-preach his message to the unbelieving Jews after his death, or at least reveal himself to them at the very least? You said that Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his death... how is that to be in any way a sign for the Jews that didnt believe?

gospelsaves seems to think there were unbelieving Jews among the 500 people who witnessed his resurrection, which could be possible but I still remain unconvinced and confused as to why he chose to reveal himself in the manner that he did.

I just dont understand the logic of it. If Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his ressurection, then you can hardly blame the non-believing Jews for still refusing to accept Jesus as a divine messenger.. for the testimony of a small group of people certainly shouldnt be regarded as absolute proof. Such a revelation seems to inconsistent with the nature in which God nationally revealed himself to the Jewish people at Mt. Sinai. Perhaps you can help me better understand
 
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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Okay, this is exactly what I am confused about. If that was to be the only sign they(the unbelieving Jews) - would receive, then why didnt they receive it?
they did receive it. the 'sign of jonah' was Jesus death.

Why didnt Jesus re-preach his message to the unbelieving Jews after his death, or at least reveal himself to them at the very least? You said that Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his death... how is that to be in any way a sign for the Jews that didnt believe?

they had already been shown Jesus miracles...many of which he performed before their very eyes in their own synagogues. when Jesus healed a man born blind on the sabbath, the man showed himself to the priests and rather then praise Jesus and accept the miracle he had performed, they condemned him for working a miracle on the sabbath. So its not like they had not seen his miracles.


gospelsaves seems to think there were unbelieving Jews among the 500 people who witnessed his resurrection, which could be possible but I still remain unconvinced and confused as to why he chose to reveal himself in the manner that he did.
after his resurrection, he was not in the same body in which he died. Even his own close associates did not always recognize him until he spoke to them. He had been raised as a spirit rather then a fleshly human. And like the angles, they can materialize into human bodies then de-materialize in an instant.... so the bodies that Jesus was appearing in were materialized bodies of flesh, but they were not the same one he died in. So even if he did appear to the priests again, they would not have recognized him as Jesus anyway.

I just dont understand the logic of it. If Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his ressurection, then you can hardly blame the non-believing Jews for still refusing to accept Jesus as a divine messenger.. for the testimony of a small group of people certainly shouldnt be regarded as absolute proof. Such a revelation seems to inconsistent with the nature in which God nationally revealed himself to the Jewish people at Mt. Sinai. Perhaps you can help me better understand

well remember that he sent Moses to free the Isrealites when he could have simply done it himself. The egyptions and the isrealites would have known it was the True God who was acting, but instead he sent them a man and he gave that man miraculous powers as proof of his divine commission. any Isrealite who failed to obey Moses instructions on the night of the angel passing over the houses would have died...so they needed to have faith in Moses as a divine messenger.

It was the same with Jesus. Jesus was given divine power as a proof to the Jews, yet they still rejected him because they did not have the sort of faith that God wants to see in people. even the Isrealites who lacked faith in the wilderness were put to death, so its not a new thing really. God has always worked the same way.
 
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Dunemeister

Well-Known Member
Okay, this is exactly what I am confused about. If that was to be the only sign they(the unbelieving Jews) - would receive, then why didnt they receive it? Why didnt Jesus re-preach his message to the unbelieving Jews after his death, or at least reveal himself to them at the very least? You said that Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his death... how is that to be in any way a sign for the Jews that didnt believe?

One of the sad themes of the Hebrew bible is the hardheartedness of Israel (although this is balanced by the rather startling characterisation of God as compassionate, longsuffering, and forgiving). Judges, and later, prophets, would never have been necessary had Israel kept covenant. As you recall from your reading of Luke, just before Jesus entered Jerusalem for the last time (he was there fairly frequently), he wept over the city, mourning its hardness of heart, which was to be the cause of the disaster that would follow soon after (Roman sacking of Jerusalem in AD 70).

Apart from the issue of hardness of heart, there is the other issue that the message Jesus was proclaiming was not to be limited only to those of Jewish stock. Because Jesus is the JEWISH Messiah, he is the WORLD's Lord, and so he appeared to his followers to rally them from their evident despair in order that they would carry on his mission. Jesus came for the Jew first, then to the Gentile. Jews get pride of place, but they are not the only beneficiaries of God's saving influence.

One final point on this head would be that God is a God of surprises. Why did God make his point by having a prophet lay on his side before a pile of dung or marry a prostitute? Why did God allow some of his people to be released from exile in Babylon only to have the exile continued in their own land with pagans in charge (Egyptians, Greeks, Romans)? Part of the problem is that Jesus is not the kind of messiah expected in the first century (let alone now by rabbinic Judaism).

I just dont understand the logic of it. If Jesus only revealed himself to his disciples after his ressurection, then you can hardly blame the non-believing Jews for still refusing to accept Jesus as a divine messenger.. for the testimony of a small group of people certainly shouldnt be regarded as absolute proof. Such a revelation seems to inconsistent with the nature in which God nationally revealed himself to the Jewish people at Mt. Sinai. Perhaps you can help me better understand

Jesus performed more than enough miracles during his 3-year ministry to justify his claims to divine sanction (if not status). Jesus was publicly executed and his grave was known. So there was the testimony of the empty tomb along with that of the first followers of Jesus, all of whom suffered martyrdom rather than recant. It seems incredible to presume that these people were liars or deluded. They had plenty of reason and opportunity to recant their story if it had been made up or dubious. Of course, this isn't a watertight argument. There is the possibility that the early proclamation was a fraud or a delusion. But it isn't much of a possibility and to give it much credit would seem to demonstrate more about the interests of the skeptic than the availability or quality of the evidence.
 

james2ko

Well-Known Member
2. Jesus constantly refers to his death and resurrection as the "sign of Jonah." I am having trouble understanding how the story of Jonah and Jesus are similar though, and was wondering if you could help? For example, Jonah tries hiding from God and ends up in the belly of a whale for 3 days, and in the end proclaims his message of repentance to the nation of nineveh. Jesus on the other hand doesnt run from God but rather actively pursues the fulfillment of his mission.. and after his resurrection, he doesn't re-proclaim his message of repentance to the nation of Israel but rather only visits a few individuals? How are these 2 stories supposed to be similar? Maybe you guys can help me better understand why Jesus refers to his resurrection as the sign of Jonah.

Christ is not attempting to draw a parallel to the "story" of Jonah but the "sign" or miracle of Jonah (resurrection). The men who threw Jonah overboard thought he was as good as dead until they saw him preaching in Nineveh. The story of his "apparent" resurrection spread like wildfire and it got people's attention.

3. This question is sort of related to question 2, but why after Jesus's resurrection did he only choose to reveal himself to a few individuals and not the entire nation of Israel(or at least a large percent of it)? Jesus told the Pharisees that they would recieve the sign of Jonah.. yet after his resurrection Jesus didnt appear to any of the pharisees..or did he?

Because Christ isn't trying to save the whole world in this age.
 

punkdbass

I will be what I will be
Thanks for the replies guys. I am trying to keep an open mind, and I think I understand better now.

If you think of Jesus's resurrection in a spiritual sense, it makes more sense. Jesus dies but 3 days later rises in spirit, to re-proclaim his message and establish his eternal spiritual power. Jesus died but the power of his spirit lives on and is continuing to make the world a better place.

Jonah symbolically "dies" then rises to directly proclaim his message of repentance to the sinners of ninevah. Jesus dies then rises spiritually.. his disciples are the first people to "experience" this, but eventually the power of his spiritual resurrection will result in the whole nation of Israel(as well as the world) to hear his message of repentance and returning to God.
 

Dunemeister

Well-Known Member
Thanks for the replies guys. I am trying to keep an open mind, and I think I understand better now.

If you think of Jesus's resurrection in a spiritual sense, it makes more sense. Jesus dies but 3 days later rises in spirit, to re-proclaim his message and establish his eternal spiritual power. Jesus died but the power of his spirit lives on and is continuing to make the world a better place.

Actually this makes nonsense of everything you've read in Luke. Jesus came to establish God's kingdom, which is very this-earthly and political in nature. If you'd like to explore that a bit, I'd be happy to start a new thread on the nature of Jesus' messiahship.

Besides, it's quite clear from everything you've read in the Gospel According to Luke that Jesus' resurrection was physical. He was touched, he ate with his followers, etc. We might pass this off as made up or delusional (I suppose) but we cannot get round the very physicality of the death AND resurrection of Jesus.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Besides, it's quite clear from everything you've read in the Gospel According to Luke that Jesus' resurrection was physical. He was touched, he ate with his followers, etc. We might pass this off as made up or delusional (I suppose) but we cannot get round the very physicality of the death AND resurrection of Jesus.

angles appeared physically too

Abraham cooked a meal for 3 visiting angels and they ate it. Jacob wrestled with an angle in order to obtain a blessing and he was able to grab hold of the angle and the angel was able to punch jacob with his fists and put out his thigh socket.
The angles who appeared to Lot were able to take Lots hand and run with him out of the city.

If angels, who are spirits, can appear in physical bodies, then so can Jesus who was raised as a spirit, can appear in a physical body.
 

Dunemeister

Well-Known Member
angles appeared physically too

Abraham cooked a meal for 3 visiting angels and they ate it. Jacob wrestled with an angle in order to obtain a blessing and he was able to grab hold of the angle and the angel was able to punch jacob with his fists and put out his thigh socket.
The angles who appeared to Lot were able to take Lots hand and run with him out of the city.

If angels, who are spirits, can appear in physical bodies, then so can Jesus who was raised as a spirit, can appear in a physical body.

The parallel would work if Jesus had originally been an angel. But he was not. His disciples (and everyone else) regarded him as human. Whatever else "resurrection" might mean, it DOESN'T mean changing from one sort of being into another. If it did, we should expect lengthy NT discourses explaining this. But we don't. We should therefore conclude that the notion of resurrection Jesus' followers had was the same as that of mainstream first century Judaism.

Besides, the disciples conceived of their own resurrections in terms of Jesus' resurrection. That is, Jesus' resurrection is the model for everyone else's. We are to be raised in exactly the same way he was. And the church has always spoken of our resurrection in physical terms (leaving aside for a moment some rather sorry Medieval developments which saw resurrection in purely spiritual terms and heaven as "a place our souls go when we die").
 

punkdbass

I will be what I will be
Well Dunemeister, if you are indeed right that the resurrection needs to be looked at physically, then I am back too square one pretty much. I can understand Jesus's resurrection in a spiritual sense, but not in a physical sense. Perhaps you can help me understand better? I guess this is a pretty confusing topic. A lot of Christians I talk to regard Jesus's crucifixion and resurrection as purely spiritual(I mean clearly Jesus met none of the requirements for a physical and literal sacrifice..) and then other Christians view such things as purely physical and literal, rather than symbolical or spiritual. Perhaps it is a mixture of the 2?

But anyways, if Jesus's resurrection was supposed to be purely physical, then I am still left wondering the following:

1. How would his resurrection be "the sign of Jonah" ? Jonah "died" then "rised" to proclaim his message of repentance to the entire nation of SINNERS. Jesus dies then rises, and only proclaims his message of repentance to his disciples... Why wouldnt he appear to the SINNERS of Israel and proclaim his message as Jonah did? Arent the sinners the one who need to message?

2. Similar to the above question, how did the Pharisees receive the sign of Jonah if Jesus didnt even appear to them?

If I think about his resurrection spiritually, I can sort of understand the 2 questions, but I am still confused how to understand these issues in the context of a physical resurrection
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
The parallel would work if Jesus had originally been an angel. But he was not. His disciples (and everyone else) regarded him as human.

Yes, he was originally an angel.
He told his disciples that he had come down from heaven and that is what they believed:
jOhn 6:37 Everything the Father gives me will come to me, and the one that comes to me I will by no means drive away; 38 because I have come down from heaven to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me.

John 3:13 Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man.
John 8:23 So he went on to say to them: “YOU are from the realms below; I am from the realms above. YOU are from this world; I am not from this world.
John 8:42 Jesus said to them: “If God were YOUR Father, YOU would love me, for from God I came forth and am here. Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

1Cor 15:47 The first man is out of the earth and made of dust; the second man is out of heaven


Whatever else "resurrection" might mean, it DOESN'T mean changing from one sort of being into another. If it did, we should expect lengthy NT discourses explaining this.

I would direct you to Pauls words at 1Cor 15:50 However, this I say, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit God’s kingdom, neither does corruption inherit incorruption. 51 Look! I tell YOU a sacred secret: We shall not all fall asleep [in death], but we shall all be changed, ...53 For this which is corruptible must put on incorruption, and this which is mortal must put on immortality


We should therefore conclude that the notion of resurrection Jesus' followers had was the same as that of mainstream first century Judaism.

which is a physical resurrection on earth...and the majority of mankind will receive such a resurrection. But Jesus did not recieve such a resurrection because if he did, he would still be here in the flesh. but he is not here, he is in heaven...how can a person of flesh and blood enter heaven? the scriptures say they cannot.

Besides, the disciples conceived of their own resurrections in terms of Jesus' resurrection. That is, Jesus' resurrection is the model for everyone else's. We are to be raised in exactly the same way he was. And the church has always spoken of our resurrection in physical terms (leaving aside for a moment some rather sorry Medieval developments which saw resurrection in purely spiritual terms and heaven as "a place our souls go when we die").

yes they did because that is what Jesus promised them. But only a small number receive a resurrection in the spirit and it is for the purpose of going into the heavenly realm to rule with Christ in the heavenly kingdom.
 

Dunemeister

Well-Known Member
But anyways, if Jesus's resurrection was supposed to be purely physical, then I am still left wondering the following:

1. How would his resurrection be "the sign of Jonah" ? Jonah "died" then "rised" to proclaim his message of repentance to the entire nation of SINNERS. Jesus dies then rises, and only proclaims his message of repentance to his disciples... Why wouldnt he appear to the SINNERS of Israel and proclaim his message as Jonah did? Arent the sinners the one who need to message?

The sign Jesus referred to was simply resurrection. Jonah was buried for three days in the belly of the fish; Jesus would be buried for three days in the tomb. Jonah was released from "death" in the fish; Jesus was to be released from death. It was not the totality of Jonah's ministry that he had in mind.

Besides, Jesus DID proclaim his message to Israel following his resurrection. He did so through his disciples in the power of the Holy Spirit.

2. Similar to the above question, how did the Pharisees receive the sign of Jonah if Jesus didnt even appear to them?

They did receive the sign. Jesus' resurrection was a public event inasmuch as anyone who had a mind to could visit the empty tomb and talk to those who had seen him physically. There is also the not inconsiderable three and a half year ministry in which God attested to Jesus' prophetic status by his ability to perform miracles (which later rabbinic Judaism attributed to sorcery).

If I think about his resurrection spiritually, I can sort of understand the 2 questions, but I am still confused how to understand these issues in the context of a physical resurrection

If you're a Jew, think like a Jew. A "spiritual" resurrection is a contradiction. A resurrection is a physical person physically dying and then physically rising to new life. That's what the church claims has happened to Jesus. Don't get too stuck on how Jesus used this or that prophet as a metaphor for resurrection. The church's message has always been that Jesus was crucified, died, was buried, and then raised to life again as first century Jews would have understood "raised to life" to mean. What has traditionally been scandalous to Jewish people is that this is claimed to have happened to the Messiah in advance of a general resurrection. Traditional Jewish expectation did not typically include a crucified Messiah. Indeed, that was pretty much a contradiction in terms.
 
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