A Possible Origin of Levitical Condemnation of Homosexuality

[Syzygy]

Sorry if something like this has been posted before, but this is an idea that has crossed my mind recently. For Christians out there, this could be a bit problematic for them as my idea is based on secular higher criticism of the Bible, so bear with me. For the rest of you, let's dive right in.

So, Leviticus 18:22: "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." AND, Leviticus 20:13: "If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."

It's laid out there pretty plainly, isn't it? For now, I'm going to ignore all the other Biblical passages that deal with this, because it would seem that this part of the holiness code present in Leviticus is the most explicit.

If you pay attention to modern higher criticism, a major theory today is that the entire Torah was not written by Moses over a period of years. Instead, different parts of the Torah were written by four different authors: J, the Jahwist; E, the Elohist; P, the Priestly source; and D, the Deuteronomist. The parts of the Torah authored by these individuals were finally collected and put together by R, the redactor. This is known as the documentary hypothesis. Obviously for the purposes of this post, I am presuming the hypothesis is accurate. (If you disagree, I would like for you to present at least a nominal reason why.)

Now, the second part of my idea, combined with the documentary hypothesis, is the ancient Greek civilization. It's importance to this argument is thus: Homosexuality, specifically male homosexuality, was very widespread in ancient Greece. Not just relationships between adult men, but pederasty, or a sexual relationship between an adult male and an adolescent boy was commonplace. (Source: wikipedia.org) (Put aside your normal moral compunctions for a second and just take a walk with me.)

According to the documentary hypothesis, the Book of Leviticus was written by the Priestly source sometime after the fall of the northern kingdom of Israel (circa 1030-1020 B.C.E.) Ancient Greek civilization was at it's peak from around 900-800 B.C.E. to sometime between 323-146 B.C.E. (Note: my understanding of Greek history is very cursory, so bear with me if I am in error in some places.) Which brings us to the main question of this post (it's hypothesis, if you will):

Did the Priestly source, when writing the Book of Leviticus, draw on a possible negative psychological reaction to the homosexuality of ancient Greece, and make it part of the holiness code in response to the homosexual practices of ancient Greece?

Of course, exact dating needs to be established, as well as reasonable proof of contact between ancient Greece and the ancient Hebrew kingdom. But what do you think? Discuss. Refute. Heck, criticize if that's your flavor. Let's go!

 

[Simon Gnosis]

Many peoples have been polarised on the subject (homosexuality).

Yet it occurs in every human society.

I suppose like fashion it fades in and out of favour, depending on the necessities of the time.

I personally find it quite amusing that christians seem to condemn homosexuality as the vilest of sins yet at the same time little boys and girls across the world lived and still live in fear of the priest returning that night for another 'holy' blessing.
The hypocracy of the church on homosexuality and general sexual deviancy only recently exposed.
I know all this only too well because my ex partner helped run a charity for children sexually abused by the clergy.....and they numbered in their thousands...
I have always believed that sexual oppression will lead to problems...and it does.

 

[sojourner]

Sorry if something like this has been posted before, but this is an idea that has crossed my mind recently. For Christians out there, this could be a bit problematic for them as my idea is based on secular higher criticism of the Bible, so bear with me. For the rest of you, let's dive right in.

So, Leviticus 18:22: "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." AND, Leviticus 20:13: "If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads."

It's laid out there pretty plainly, isn't it? For now, I'm going to ignore all the other Biblical passages that deal with this, because it would seem that this part of the holiness code present in Leviticus is the most explicit.

If you pay attention to modern higher criticism, a major theory today is that the entire Torah was not written by Moses over a period of years. Instead, different parts of the Torah were written by four different authors: J, the Jahwist; E, the Elohist; P, the Priestly source; and D, the Deuteronomist. The parts of the Torah authored by these individuals were finally collected and put together by R, the redactor. This is known as the documentary hypothesis. Obviously for the purposes of this post, I am presuming the hypothesis is accurate. (If you disagree, I would like for you to present at least a nominal reason why.)

Now, the second part of my idea, combined with the documentary hypothesis, is the ancient Greek civilization. It's importance to this argument is thus: Homosexuality, specifically male homosexuality, was very widespread in ancient Greece. Not just relationships between adult men, but pederasty, or a sexual relationship between an adult male and an adolescent boy was commonplace. (Source: wikipedia.org) (Put aside your normal moral compunctions for a second and just take a walk with me.)

According to the documentary hypothesis, the Book of Leviticus was written by the Priestly source sometime after the fall of the northern kingdom of Israel (circa 1030-1020 B.C.E.) Ancient Greek civilization was at it's peak from around 900-800 B.C.E. to sometime between 323-146 B.C.E. (Note: my understanding of Greek history is very cursory, so bear with me if I am in error in some places.) Which brings us to the main question of this post (it's hypothesis, if you will):

Did the Priestly source, when writing the Book of Leviticus, draw on a possible negative psychological reaction to the homosexuality of ancient Greece, and make it part of the holiness code in response to the homosexual practices of ancient Greece?

Of course, exact dating needs to be established, as well as reasonable proof of contact between ancient Greece and the ancient Hebrew kingdom. But what do you think? Discuss. Refute. Heck, criticize if that's your flavor. Let's go!

I think it has far less to do with ancient Greek culture than with ancient Hebraic culture. That culture was based upon honor and shame being imbedded in sexual identity. Males were honorable, females were shameful. Therefore, it was shameful for a man a) to "bend over and take it like a woman" from someone who was his social equal, and b) to "give it" to a social equal. Plus, the act did not produce children -- also an important aspect of Hebraic sexuality.

 

[Syzygy]

I think it has far less to do with ancient Greek culture than with ancient Hebraic culture. That culture was based upon honor and shame being imbedded in sexual identity. Males were honorable, females were shameful. Therefore, it was shameful for a man a) to "bend over and take it like a woman" from someone who was his social equal, and b) to "give it" to a social equal. Plus, the act did not produce children -- also an important aspect of Hebraic sexuality.

Hmm, maybe. Never considered it like that. Wonder if yours was the primary reason and mine (if it happened) just reinforced it? Don't know.