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Abrahamic God

A Vestigial Mote

Well-Known Member
Assessing the term "Abrahamic God" it would seem to me that He/She/It suffers from multiple personality disorder. How else do you explain multiple "revelations" of scripture that are all (supposedly) about the same God, but with unique and sometimes stark differences? Especially when considering the claim in all "Abrahamic" religions that God is a powerful creator and manipulator of the universe. Oh wait... another explanation could be that it is all just made up nonsense. Hmmm...
 

Spirit of Light

Be who ever you want
that its always somewhere else vs here? or its an old man in recluse. so how does a reclusive god become a loving god. unrequited love?
I am no expert on Abrahamic God, but if this God is omnipresent, would not that mean God could be here here, elsewhere, and somewhere at the same time?
Can it be that God is not bound by a body like ours so God can anywhere all the time?
 

The Anointed

Well-Known Member
I am no expert on Abrahamic God, but if this God is omnipresent, would not that mean God could be here here, elsewhere, and somewhere at the same time?
Can it be that God is not bound by a body like ours so God can anywhere all the time?

Jeremiah 23: 23 "I am a God who is everywhere and not in one place only. 24No one can hide where I cannot see him. Do you not know that I am everywhere in heaven and on earth?"
 

Mitty

Active Member
I am no expert on Abrahamic God, but if this God is omnipresent, would not that mean God could be here here, elsewhere, and somewhere at the same time?
Can it be that God is not bound by a body like ours so God can anywhere all the time?
If the Abrahamic god was omnipresent and omniscient, why did it need to have a face to face discussion with Abraham about the number of righteous children in Sodom when they shared a meal together and then walked down to Sodom to count them for itself (Gen 18)? Or is the Abrahamic god just created in the images and likenesses of the biblical writers and why the 10 commandments etc are obviously just man-made since they didn't apply to Abraham and his ancestors?
 

Spirit of Light

Be who ever you want
If the Abrahamic god was omnipresent and omniscient, why did it need to have a face to face discussion with Abraham about the number of righteous children in Sodom when they shared a meal together and then walked down to Sodom to count them for itself (Gen 18)? Or is the Abrahamic god just created in the images and likenesses of the biblical writers and why the 10 commandments etc are obviously just man-made since they didn't apply to Abraham and his ancestors?
That you must ask God about. I can not answer for Him.
 

The Anointed

Well-Known Member
That you must ask God about. I can not answer for Him.

And why would you bother to answer an atheist who haunts the religious forums in its attempt to denigrate the Most High to have developed within the creation, which creation is the eternal energy that has neither beginning or end, and has manifested itself as this seemingly physical universe.

That atheist asks a million questions, and yet refuses to answer ONE.

Let us see if it will answer a question put to it? Mitty, "What does Hebrews 5: 5-6, say?"
 

Mitty

Active Member
And why would you bother to answer an atheist who haunts the religious forums in its attempt to denigrate the Most High to have developed within the creation, which creation is the eternal energy that has neither beginning or end, and has manifested itself as this seemingly physical universe.

That atheist asks a million questions, and yet refuses to answer ONE.

Let us see if it will answer a question put to it? Mitty, "What does Hebrews 5: 5-6, say?"
So What on Earth has Paul's imaginative story got to do with Abraham's god needing to ask Abraham about the number of righteous children in Sodom, and then walking down to Sodom to count them for itself since it was neither an omniscient or omnipresent type of god?

And how did Paul know that a god told Jesus that he was it's begotten son, given that Paul never even met Jesus? Or did Paul just plagiarise Psalm 2:7-7 which says that David was a king and was his god's begotten son, and why the NT writers tried to link Jesus to David through the genealogies for Jesus' step father (Matt 1) and his biological father (Luke 3)?
 

The Anointed

Well-Known Member
See Amanaki, I told you that it can't answer any question put to it, but resorts to asking more and more questions.

It is so afraid to answer the question, as its answer would prove it to be in error.

So let us repeat the question; "What does Hebrews 5: 5-6 say?"
 

Spirit of Light

Be who ever you want
And why would you bother to answer an atheist who haunts the religious forums in its attempt to denigrate the Most High to have developed within the creation, which creation is the eternal energy that has neither beginning or end, and has manifested itself as this seemingly physical universe.

That atheist asks a million questions, and yet refuses to answer ONE.

Let us see if it will answer a question put to it? Mitty, "What does Hebrews 5: 5-6, say?"
I answer atheists too, but yes sometime they make me frustrated too. But I try my best to be a God person and not get mad. I noticed my own fault in the last month and trying to become better, that means to answer atheists too in a better why then I did before.
 

Mitty

Active Member
See Amanaki, I told you that it can't answer any question put to it, but resorts to asking more and more questions.

It is so afraid to answer the question, as its answer would prove it to be in error.

So let us repeat the question; "What does Hebrews 5: 5-6 say?"
So why did Paul plagiarize Psalm 2:7 which says that David was his god's begotten son, and given that Paul never even met Jesus let alone asked him if he was his god's begotten son like David too?
 
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