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Are Vedas in chronological order?

Aupmanyav

Be your own guru
Are Vedas in chronological order? If not what system it has in it.
I think I have already answered this question. They are roughly based on families from which people wrote the hymns. How many times you will need us to reply before anything registers in your brain. I even included the following image. See here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rigveda#Rishis

Vedas.jpg
 
Last edited:

Satyamavejayanti

Well-Known Member
Then, what is your interpretation of the word "Arya"?Kindly express fully. Please
Regards

Namaste,

Arya means noble, cultured, ethical and civilized in Veda and Sanskrit, not referring to any particular group or people or tribe at all. Aryan is a European corruption of the word Arya. Now when the Europeans came they assumed Arya means a race of people who are noble, cultured ect ect. at first they assumed that the Europeans came from India and Indian Aryans were their ancestors, then slowly their romance with India faded and as the 17th and 18th Centuries Europe were popular for its racism and race sciences, they assumed that such a Aryan race must be white or European because the inferior "N i g g e r s of India", cannot be capable of producing such great Sanskrit works nor would they be capable of influencing and producing the civilizations that flourished in most of Asia.

The famous Max Muller (Orientalist) notes the mood of the Europeans especially the British of the day, here is a quote from Max.

They would not have it [referring to the British], they would not believe that there could be any community of origin between the people of Athens and Rome, and the so-called N i g g e r s of India. The classical scholars scouted the idea, and I still remember the time, when I was a student at Leipzig and begun to study Sanskrit, with what contempt any remarks on Sanskrit or comparative grammar were treated by my teachers . . . No one ever was for a time so completely laughed down as Professor Bopp, when he first published his Comparative Grammar of Sanskrit, Zend, Greek, Latin and Gothic. All hands were against him.
(1883: 28)

Edward F Bryant in the book: (i suggest you get a copy)
THE INDO-ARYAN CONTROVERSY Evidence and inference in Indian history: in his concluding remarks makes this observation about the situation at the time the "Love", for Indian things ended. He writes:

"India was considered the cradle of civilization as the homeland of the Aryans, but, by the century’s end, it was viewed by some as its grave."

In the same book there are plenty of discussions from both sides of the debate, but as there is no conclusive answer to this "Aryan Myth", and i think that is purely because there never was a Aryan group of speakers nor was there are Aryan race in the first place, i think this is just 200 years of discussion and debate on something that probably is imaginations of the early orientalists.

Anyways this is what i gather from my limited readings of many books.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Namaste,
Arya means noble, cultured, ethical and civilized in Veda and Sanskrit, not referring to any particular group or people or tribe at all. Aryan is a European corruption of the word Arya. Now when the Europeans came they assumed Arya means a race of people who are noble, cultured ect ect. at first they assumed that the Europeans came from India and Indian Aryans were their ancestors, then slowly their romance with India faded and as the 17th and 18th Centuries Europe were popular for its racism and race sciences, they assumed that such a Aryan race must be white or European because the inferior "N i g g e r s of India", cannot be capable of producing such great Sanskrit works nor would they be capable of influencing and producing the civilizations that flourished in most of Asia.
The famous Max Muller (Orientalist) notes the mood of the Europeans especially the British of the day, here is a quote from Max.
They would not have it [referring to the British], they would not believe that there could be any community of origin between the people of Athens and Rome, and the so-called N i g g e r s of India. The classical scholars scouted the idea, and I still remember the time, when I was a student at Leipzig and begun to study Sanskrit, with what contempt any remarks on Sanskrit or comparative grammar were treated by my teachers . . . No one ever was for a time so completely laughed down as Professor Bopp, when he first published his Comparative Grammar of Sanskrit, Zend, Greek, Latin and Gothic. All hands were against him.
(1883: 28)
Edward F Bryant in the book: (i suggest you get a copy)
THE INDO-ARYAN CONTROVERSY Evidence and inference in Indian history: in his concluding remarks makes this observation about the situation at the time the "Love", for Indian things ended. He writes:
"India was considered the cradle of civilization as the homeland of the Aryans, but, by the century’s end, it was viewed by some as its grave."
In the same book there are plenty of discussions from both sides of the debate, but as there is no conclusive answer to this "Aryan Myth", and i think that is purely because there never was a Aryan group of speakers nor was there are Aryan race in the first place, i think this is just 200 years of discussion and debate on something that probably is imaginations of the early orientalists.
Anyways this is what i gather from my limited readings of many books.

Thanks for this information.
Regards
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Namaste,
Arya means noble, cultured, ethical and civilized in Veda and Sanskrit, not referring to any particular group or people or tribe at all. Aryan is a European corruption of the word Arya. Now when the Europeans came they assumed Arya means a race of people who are noble, cultured ect ect. at first they assumed that the Europeans came from India and Indian Aryans were their ancestors, then slowly their romance with India faded and as the 17th and 18th Centuries Europe were popular for its racism and race sciences, they assumed that such a Aryan race must be white or European because the inferior "N i g g e r s of India", cannot be capable of producing such great Sanskrit works nor would they be capable of influencing and producing the civilizations that flourished in most of Asia.
The famous Max Muller (Orientalist) notes the mood of the Europeans especially the British of the day, here is a quote from Max.
They would not have it [referring to the British], they would not believe that there could be any community of origin between the people of Athens and Rome, and the so-called N i g g e r s of India. The classical scholars scouted the idea, and I still remember the time, when I was a student at Leipzig and begun to study Sanskrit, with what contempt any remarks on Sanskrit or comparative grammar were treated by my teachers . . . No one ever was for a time so completely laughed down as Professor Bopp, when he first published his Comparative Grammar of Sanskrit, Zend, Greek, Latin and Gothic. All hands were against him.
(1883: 28)
Edward F Bryant in the book: (i suggest you get a copy)
THE INDO-ARYAN CONTROVERSY Evidence and inference in Indian history: in his concluding remarks makes this observation about the situation at the time the "Love", for Indian things ended. He writes:
"India was considered the cradle of civilization as the homeland of the Aryans, but, by the century’s end, it was viewed by some as its grave."
In the same book there are plenty of discussions from both sides of the debate, but as there is no conclusive answer to this "Aryan Myth", and i think that is purely because there never was a Aryan group of speakers nor was there are Aryan race in the first place, i think this is just 200 years of discussion and debate on something that probably is imaginations of the early orientalists.
Anyways this is what i gather from my limited readings of many books.
One must realize that this entails that not only one battle "The battle of Ten Kings" was fought here within the Indian-sub-Continent, but some or many or innumerable battles/wars were fought in this very soil. Right? Please
Regards
 

Satyamavejayanti

Well-Known Member
One must realize that this entails that not only one battle "The battle of Ten Kings" was fought here within the Indian-sub-Continent, but some or many or innumerable battles/wars were fought in this very soil. Right? Please
Regards

Namaste,

Tell me one country or civilization where there were no wars or battles fought?

The Indian independence movement was a battle, the Mugal invasion was a battle, before that there were many battles within Bharata.
With India (Bahrata, Aryavarta ect as previously known) the only thing we can say is that we never invaded any other nation, nor did we ever have wars with other countries prior to this century. WW1, WW2, Indo-China War ect, even in these India as a Nation and civilization did not invade nor start the wars.

Are you implying that Indians & Hindus should be pacifists? because that is not what Ahimsa means.

Ahimsa means to practice minimum harm and to not be the cause of harm, it does not mean to sit around and meditate when someone is attacking you.

Dhanyavad
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Namaste,
Tell me one country or civilization where there were no wars or battles fought?
The Indian independence movement was a battle, the Mugal invasion was a battle, before that there were many battles within Bharata.
With India (Bahrata, Aryavarta ect as previously known) the only thing we can say is that we never invaded any other nation, nor did we ever have wars with other countries prior to this century. WW1, WW2, Indo-China War ect, even in these India as a Nation and civilization did not invade nor start the wars.
Are you implying that Indians & Hindus should be pacifists? because that is not what Ahimsa means.
Ahimsa means to practice minimum harm and to not be the cause of harm, it does not mean to sit around and meditate when someone is attacking you.
Dhanyavad

We are discussing Veda, Veda people and the Veda-Period, it proves that the Veda priest-hood were warmongers rather they were much obsessed with wars. Leaving Brahman, they created Gods to that end. Right? Please
Regards
 

Jainarayan

ॐ नमो भगवते वासुदेवाय
Staff member
Premium Member
it proves that the Veda priest-hood were warmongers rather they were much obsessed with wars. Leaving Brahman, they created Gods to that end. Right?

Wrong, again. The priests only performed sacrifice and worship. They were not politicians or rulers.

On one hand you say the Vedas were "revealed", presumably by God. Now you are saying the Vedic priests wrote the Vedas? Which is it, God or priests?

cookie_single_pack.png
Pick a side.
 

Satyamavejayanti

Well-Known Member
We are discussing Veda, Veda people and the Veda-Period, it proves that the Veda priest-hood were warmongers rather they were much obsessed with wars. Leaving Brahman, they created Gods to that end. Right? Please
Regards

Namaste,

The same logic can be applied to the Muhamadians and the Christians priests, Same can be said of the Islamic religion as a whole, all are warmongers, the difference (between Brahman/Hinduism) in that Allah/God is also a warmonger er.

And as many have already told, the wars/battles are not literal in the Mantra Samhita, these are battles we fight within our self all the time, the fight between the light and the darkness within.

My advise to you is not to let the darkness consume you.

Dhanyavad
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
Namaste,
The same logic can be applied to the Muhamadians and the Christians priests, Same can be said of the Islamic religion as a whole, all are warmongers, the difference (between Brahman/Hinduism) in that Allah/God is also a warmonger er.
And as many have already told, the wars/battles are not literal in the Mantra Samhita, these are battles we fight within our self all the time, the fight between the light and the darkness within.
My advise to you is not to let the darkness consume you.
Dhanyavad

"Same can be said of the Islamic religion as a whole"
Simply wrong. Quran/Islam/Muhammad were peaceful and mentioned an elaborate system of that. They were never ever aggressors. Please
Regards
 

Satyamavejayanti

Well-Known Member
"Same can be said of the Islamic religion as a whole"
Simply wrong. Quran/Islam/Muhammad were peaceful and mentioned an elaborate system of that. They were never ever aggressors. Please
Regards

Namaste,

Sorry, but it seems that Logic (and actual Islamic History) is not your strong point.

Dhanyavad
 

Vinayaka

devotee
Premium Member
"Same can be said of the Islamic religion as a whole"
Simply wrong. Quran/Islam/Muhammad were peaceful and mentioned an elaborate system of that. They were never ever aggressors. Please
Regards
So you are denying the entire history of any Muslim invasions of anywhere? You are saying that Islam always was, always will be a religion of total peace?

None of this stuff whatsoever... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islam_and_war ever happened?
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
So you are denying the entire history of any Muslim invasions of anywhere? You are saying that Islam always was, always will be a religion of total peace?
None of this stuff whatsoever... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islam_and_war ever happened?

It is 100% accurate that in the times of Muhammad, the truthful prophet/messenger of G-d, no battles or wars were fought for converting somebody to Islam. Muhammad was a lover of humanity and abhorred to force somebody to Islam . How could he do that when Allah did not command or give any teachings recorded in Quran to convert somebody to Islam forcibly? G-d had revealed Quran which gave ample, reasonable and rational teachings for every situation. There was absolutely no reason to employ force when Quran was full of reasonable arguments that were sufficient to convince one heart and soul to Islam in the peace time and these arguments are in abundance, one could see them. Peace suited most to Muhammad to convey the message entrusted to him by G-d. Right? Please
Kindly correct me if I am wrong. Please
Regards
 
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