muhammad_isa
Veteran Member
No, it isn't.Yes, as it is the very definition of an argumentum ad populum fallacy.
It uses an appeal to the beliefs, tastes, or values of a group of people, stating that because a certain opinion or attitude is held by a majority, it is therefore correct.
That is not the case in the example above. It has nothing to do with a majority, nor their opinion on a particular issue.
I think you are guilty of a fallacy of a fallacy.