e.r.m.
Church of Christ
In Romans 4, Paul goes into extensive detail and description of how Abraham was considered righteous before circumcision. He called it "the sign of circumcision". (Side note, the law occurred between Abraham's sola fide and the New Testament).
With Paul's incredible descriptive capacity that he displays in chapter 4 of calling a sign a sign, he then leaves baptism completely alone.
It would be inconsistent for Paul to say
(NASB) Acts 22:12-13, 16
"A certain Ananias, a man who was devout by the standard of the Law, and well spoken of by all the Jews who lived there, [13] came to me, and standing near said to me, ''Brother Saul, receive your sight!'' And at that very time I looked up at him. [16] ''Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.''
-and then say "Baptism is just an after the fact sign."
If Paul had considered baptism as a sign of the covenant, he demonstrated in chapter 4 that he was more than capable of saying the sign of baptism -explicitly, he did not.
Paul mentions baptism quite a few times, and he had ample opportunity to call it a sign as he did with circumcision, but he did not - nor did anyone else in the Bible.
Zwingli, however, was one of this idea's main proponents. These days many take an extreme liberty of calling baptism a sign of the covenant, where Paul did not.
(NASB) Colossians 2:11-13
and in Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ; [12] having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead. [13] When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions,
Paul mentions circumcision and baptism in the same sentence without referring to it as a sign of the covenant, but he does throw in "having forgiven us all our transgressions."
With Paul's incredible descriptive capacity that he displays in chapter 4 of calling a sign a sign, he then leaves baptism completely alone.
It would be inconsistent for Paul to say
(NASB) Acts 22:12-13, 16
"A certain Ananias, a man who was devout by the standard of the Law, and well spoken of by all the Jews who lived there, [13] came to me, and standing near said to me, ''Brother Saul, receive your sight!'' And at that very time I looked up at him. [16] ''Now why do you delay? Get up and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.''
-and then say "Baptism is just an after the fact sign."
If Paul had considered baptism as a sign of the covenant, he demonstrated in chapter 4 that he was more than capable of saying the sign of baptism -explicitly, he did not.
Paul mentions baptism quite a few times, and he had ample opportunity to call it a sign as he did with circumcision, but he did not - nor did anyone else in the Bible.
Zwingli, however, was one of this idea's main proponents. These days many take an extreme liberty of calling baptism a sign of the covenant, where Paul did not.
(NASB) Colossians 2:11-13
and in Him you were also circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, in the removal of the body of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ; [12] having been buried with Him in baptism, in which you were also raised up with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead. [13] When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions,
Paul mentions circumcision and baptism in the same sentence without referring to it as a sign of the covenant, but he does throw in "having forgiven us all our transgressions."
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