A view from a non-Christian
As the word "homophobia" is regarded today it can mean several things; an
"irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against homosexuality or homosexuals"
Source: Merriam-Webster
So, my first question would be, which of these is one addressing?
"irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against homosexuality" [homosexual activities]
OR
"irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against homosexuals" [people who are exclusively sexually attracted to people of their own sex.]
As for the Bible, it focuses on the activity rather than the attraction.
Romans 1:26-27
26 Because people did those things, God left them and let them do the shameful things they wanted to do. Women stopped having natural sex with men and started having sex with other women. 27 In the same way, men stopped having natural sex with women and began wanting each other all the time. Men did shameful things with other men, and in their bodies they received the punishment for those wrongs.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
9-10 Surely you know that people who do wrong will not get to enjoy God’s kingdom. Don’t be fooled. These are the people who will not get to enjoy his kingdom: those who sin sexually, those who worship idols, those who commit adultery, men who let other men use them for sex or who have sex with other men, those who steal, those who are greedy, those who drink too much, those who abuse others with insults, and those who cheat.
Leviticus 18:22
22 “Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!
Leviticus 20:13
13 “If a man has sexual relations with another man as with a woman, they have committed a terrible sin. They must be put to death. They are responsible for their own death.
1 Corinthians7:2
But sexual sin is a danger, so each man should enjoy his own wife, and each woman should enjoy her own husband.
[Not quite on point, but close enough I think.]
Therefore, as I read it the Bible it evidently
doesn't care if "people. . . are exclusively sexually attracted to people of their own sex," although, it does very much care if one engages in homosexual activities. So if there's going to be any homophobia going on it should be limited to "irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against" the activity. Perhaps one of those "hate the sin and not the sinner" things. If a homosexual doesn't have same sex engagements, I assume he's pretty much home free as far as committing any sexual sin, and should not be feared, averted, or discriminated against. In which case homophobia would be an asinine reaction.
So the question is, to what extent should the good Christian visit his fear, aversion, and discrimination on the
practicing homosexual?
As I see it, if one is committed to abiding by the Bible, especially Lev. 20:13, it isn't enough to let god handle the matter, but one should put such people (men anyway) to death. However, if one feels Christians are no longer bound by OT laws not reiterated in the NT then to what extent should the good Christian act on his fears, aversions, and discrimination against the practicing homosexual?
In fairness to homosexuals, who according to all the studies I'm aware of, do not choose their sexual orientation, the question has to be asked: should it really be expected that they reign in their sexual urges? Although for some inexplicable reason the Bible really hates such goings-on, when it comes right down to the nuts and bolts of homosexual activity one has to wonder: why this hatred of two consenting people doing X with each other? From what I've read of the Bible it doesn't give any reason other than: god doesn't like it.
And despite this groundless regard for homosexual activities (no reasons are given) the Bible has instilled homophobia---fear, aversion, and discrimination---in its believers. So, how much does the good Christian want to follow this irrational homophobia?
My answer would be to ask oneself how fair is it to hold against them the right to express their unbidden sexual urges just because they're different from one's own? Do practicing homosexuals deserve to be discriminated against simply because they happened to have developed differently than most others? If you feel the Bible is inviolate then I assume you do feel your homophobia is well grounded. However, as a matter of loving fairness exactly how just is this?
From where I sit looking at the OP question, "
Can Christianity move beyond its inherent homophobia," my answer would be, in large part yes it can---the fundies notwithstanding. And, it will easily survive the growing social acceptance of the LGBTQ community because more and more people are recognizing that LGBTs are just as much an asset to our society as straight folk, and that what they do in the bedroom simply doesn't matter, despite what the Bible says.
Just as an aside. I believe it's issues such as this that are leading to the decline in Christianity in the USA and Canada. People seem to be thinking more on their own, embracing acceptance, and shifting away from the hate of the Bible.
If I may say, what you have is right.
But if I may add one thing, that you didn't mention, that according to what James had written in the book of James.
Let's I look upon something and I lust after it that I want it, there's no harm in that. But some would say, your committing a sin.
.