• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Challenging Judaism's politics

rosends

Well-Known Member
Lol. Are you sure? Your words seem to depict a different story.
Seems, I know not seems.
Classical sources are not Rabbinical?
Did I say otherwise?

Well a political convert would be someone who lived in a land by that lands laws. Think resident alien.
So I, as an American citizen who is Jewish am a political convert in the U.S. because I live by its laws?


You feel like the Hebrew people accepted the Egyptian gods and forgot about their God?
After 200 or so years, some did in some ways. Some didn't and in some ways none did.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Seems, I know not seems.
See, that is much better.
Did I say otherwise?
You implied it by asking for classical sources and then suggesting that they needn't be rabbinical.
So I, as an American citizen who is Jewish am a political convert in the U.S. because I live by its laws?
Yes. Don't worry though, I don't like it either.

After 200 or so years, some did in some ways. Some didn't and in some ways none did.
but then they were not all gerim, unless they were by virtue of their being held to Egyptian law not religion.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
You implied it by asking for classical sources and then suggesting that they needn't be rabbinical.
No, you inferred it though I have no idea how. I asked for classical sources backing up your claim (post 83), you confirmed that request in post 84, I reconfirmed in 86 and then suddenly you ask about Rabbinic sources as distinguished from classical source (though, no they are not identical). I'm not sure what the relevance is as I have yet to see any sources that explain the word ger in that verse (as I specified in post 86) means "stranger."

Yes. Don't worry though, I don't like it either.
It isn't a question of liking. It is a label of which I have never heard and which doesn't seem to have any linguistic utility. Everyone, according to that definition, "someone who lived in a land by that lands laws", is a "political convert."
but then they were not all gerim, unless they were by virtue of their being held to Egyptian law not religion.
Another strange leap to make. One could say that at a certain point, and for a few different reasons, not all were gerim. But so what? Not all left Egypt. The question has to do with those who would have been included in the verse in Leviticus who, because they did leave Egypt, were still gerim at that point. And so?
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
No, you inferred it though I have no idea how. I asked for classical sources backing up your claim (post 83), you confirmed that request in post 84, I reconfirmed in 86 and then suddenly you ask about Rabbinic sources as distinguished from classical source (though, no they are not identical). I'm not sure what the relevance is as I have yet to see any sources that explain the word ger in that verse (as I specified in post 86) means "stranger."
Yes because you wanted sources for that verse as opposed to Genesis versus of ger.
It isn't a question of liking. It is a label of which I have never heard and which doesn't seem to have any linguistic utility.
I have no ideas why practicing orthodox Jews would want to consider us strangers in a strange land either. But I guess it fits the convert reading..

Everyone, according to that definition, "someone who lived in a land by that lands laws", is a "political convert."
Nope, only Jewish people in a non Jewish land, or non Jewish people in a Jewish land. And regular converts to the religion.

Another strange leap to make. One could say that at a certain point, and for a few different reasons, not all were gerim. But so what? Not all left Egypt. The question has to do with those who would have been included in the verse in Leviticus who, because they did leave Egypt, were still gerim at that point. And so?
And of the ones that left Egypt they all abandoned God and took up Egyptian gods in Egypt? Or they took up Egyptian laws and kept their God?
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
Yes because you wanted sources for that verse as opposed to Genesis versus of ger.
I never mentioned Genesis. You did. Therefore I never wanted sources for anything as opposed to Genesis.
I have no ideas why practicing orthodox Jews would want to consider us strangers in a strange land either. But I guess it fits the convert reading..
Since I don't know whom you mean by "us" or why you think of yourself as the object of a verse in Leviticus, I can't comment.
Nope, only Jewish people in a non Jewish land, or non Jewish people in a Jewish land. And regular converts to the religion.
Then your definition is fatally flawed. Your wrote "someone who lived in a land by that lands laws" which says nothing about religion. If you intend to change your definition, please say so.

And of the ones that left Egypt they all abandoned God and took up Egyptian gods in Egypt? Or they took up Egyptian laws and kept their God?
Some, some and some. I get the sense you are looking for some magical combination in order to make some argument about your interpretation of the word "ger". You are trying too hard to justify something. If you don't already have all this information from your studies, piecing it together from these questions won't do you much good.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
I never mentioned Genesis. You did. Therefore I never wanted sources for anything as opposed to Genesis.

Since I don't know whom you mean by "us" or why you think of yourself as the object of a verse in Leviticus, I can't comment.

Then your definition is fatally flawed. Your wrote "someone who lived in a land by that lands laws" which says nothing about religion. If you intend to change your definition, please say so.


Some, some and some. I get the sense you are looking for some magical combination in order to make some argument about your interpretation of the word "ger". You are trying too hard to justify something. If you don't already have all this information from your studies, piecing it together from these questions won't do you much good.
No change it would also include religious converts. It simply means conversation or newcomer therefore it is malleable and contextual.
 

Shaul

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Judaism doesn’t have a politics. Judaism is the religious practice of Jews. Jews are not a monolith and have as varied political expressions as any other people.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
No change it would also include religious converts. It simply means conversation or newcomer therefore it is malleable and contextual.
You responded to a number of points with a single statement and one that makes little sense. "What" would include religious converts? What means "conversation or newcomer"?
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
You responded to a number of points with a single statement and one that makes little sense. "What" would include religious converts? What means "conversation or newcomer"?
Sorry, my phone does auto fill. I have to stop it from writing words and sometimes I forget. Ger means convert or newcomer. And ger would include any convert or newcomer whether that was a convert to a religion or convert to a nation.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
Ger means convert or newcomer. And ger would include any convert or newcomer whether that was a convert to a religion or convert to a nation.
Ger has a variety of meanings depending on context and use. I can provide sources that explain its use as convert, and in other places, as something different from that. Judaism has parsed its various uses and has traditional understandings about what it means. Deciding what it means based on a personal and contemporary sense has no effect on Judaism.
 

Akivah

Well-Known Member
Ger means convert or newcomer. And ger would include any convert or newcomer whether that was a convert to a religion or convert to a nation.

Rosends has been been asking for classical Judaism sources backing up your definition for over a dozen posts so far and you have not provided it. It's past time to present some proof of your definition from classical Judaism sources.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Rosends has been been asking for classical Judaism sources backing up your definition for over a dozen posts so far and you have not provided it. It's past time to present some proof of your definition from classical Judaism sources.
You want me to provide classical sources that ger means convert now? Rosends already did that.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
Ger has a variety of meanings depending on context and use. I can provide sources that explain its use as convert, and in other places, as something different from that. Judaism has parsed its various uses and has traditional understandings about what it means. Deciding what it means based on a personal and contemporary sense has no effect on Judaism.
I thought we were discussing the verse where it meant convert. What are you trying to say? You can provide classical sources that show that convert can only refer to convert in the religious sense in this verse? Please, by all means do that.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I thought we were discussing the verse where it meant convert. What are you trying to say? You can provide classical sources that show that convert can only refer to convert in the religious sense in this verse? Please, by all means do that.
I have shown sources that demonstrate that in this verse (in this part of the verse, actually) it means religious convert. I also provided references to sources that it means something else in other uses. Having thusly substantiated the claim that there is a traditional Judaic belief about the meaning and application of ger in that verse, it is up to you to show that your understanding of the verse bears any relationship to Judaic thinking.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
I have shown sources that demonstrate that in this verse (in this part of the verse, actually) it means religious convert. I also provided references to sources that it means something else in other uses. Having thusly substantiated the claim that there is a traditional Judaic belief about the meaning and application of ger in that verse, it is up to you to show that your understanding of the verse bears any relationship to Judaic thinking.
I just saw sources that suggested it meant convert and that convert included religious converts. I saw nothing that excluded other converts. More to the point, the text itself prevents one from concluding that it only means religious convert.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I just saw sources that suggested it meant convert and that convert included religious converts. I saw nothing that excluded other converts. More to the point, the text itself prevents one from concluding that it only means religious convert.
The text then also doesn't exclude converts into the human race from the planet Mercury I guess.

Here is a commentary on 19:33. It explains what the text means

YE SHALL NOT VEX HIM — This implies vexing him with words (cf. Rashi on Exodus 22:20) — do not say to him, “Yesterday you were an idolator and now you come to study the Torah which was given from the mouth of the Almighty!” (Sifra, Kedoshim, Chapter 8 2; Bava Metzia 58b, 59b.)

-------
Now, if you want to take the text which specifies that the ger is one who was an idolater and now has come to study Judaism, and decide that it might also mean someone who was a Packers fan and now has converted into a Lions then feel free. The classical texts say what they mean.
 

Curious George

Veteran Member
The text then also doesn't exclude converts into the human race from the planet Mercury I guess.

Here is a commentary on 19:33. It explains what the text means

YE SHALL NOT VEX HIM — This implies vexing him with words (cf. Rashi on Exodus 22:20) — do not say to him, “Yesterday you were an idolator and now you come to study the Torah which was given from the mouth of the Almighty!” (Sifra, Kedoshim, Chapter 8 2; Bava Metzia 58b, 59b.)

-------
Now, if you want to take the text which specifies that the ger is one who was an idolater and now has come to study Judaism, and decide that it might also mean someone who was a Packers fan and now has converted into a Lions then feel free. The classical texts say what they mean.
That is great. But does this then mean that the all Hebrew people had given up God to study Egyptian gods in Egypt?

It seems the text shows a different story. So this can not be the case.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
That is great. But does this then mean that the all Hebrew people had given up God to study Egyptian gods in Egypt?

It seems the text shows a different story. So this can not be the case.
Um, no, because that text isn't referring to any Hebrew people. I'll explain.

As I stated earlier, the word "ger" has a variety of meanings depending on its location and use. The intitial claim had to do with an injunction not to oppress the ger. In that use, as shown, it meant "convert." Now, the fact is, the reason for the injunction was because the Hebrews were "ger" in Egypt" but in that use, as a label for the Hebrews, it meant something else. The law was created not through a strict transference (because you were A, and they are A, treat them the way you wanted to be treated) but because of analogy (because you were one meaning of "A" and they are another meaning of "A" you should treat them in the way you want to be treated). But because the tradition defines what each of those meanings of "A" is, it cannot be applied to other potential meanings, which is what the OP is attempting to do.

So unless you can show me a Judaic tradition that applies it in 19:33 to a generic stranger, then the fact that in the second half of 19:34 it might include something else is irrelevant. To express this, I will quote the Stone tanach's translation

19:33 "When a proselyte dwells among you in your land do not taunt him."
19:34 "The proselyte who dwells with you shall be like a native among you, and you shall love him like yourself, for you were aliens in the land of Egypt -- I am Hashem your God"
 
Last edited:

Tumah

Veteran Member
Leviticus 19:34

"When a stranger resides with you in your land, you shall not do him wrong.The stranger who resides with you shall be to you as the native among you, and you shall love him as yourself, for you were aliens in the land of Egypt; I am the LORD your God. 35'You shall do no wrong in judgment, in measurement of weight, or capacity.…"

-Leviticus19:34


I was sad someone who was a holocaust survivor said 2:18.......I do remember Hitler saying the same something similar about "his country."
I didn't watch the video so I don't know about which specific people you are trying to apply this verse to. But I want to address the verse itself.
Understanding that Judaism is originally the national religion of the people living in a certain country, the word "stranger" is usually understood to mean a convert. Someone who has come to live in the country of Jews is most likely doing so because they've adopted the religion of the Jews. For times where that's not the case, the word "resident" or something similar is added to the context. It's not the literal meaning of the word (which I believe is "dweller"), but I believe the background and context indicates that meaning when referring to people who've come to the nation. Compare for instance, Num 15:16 where the Laws of the Torah are commanded on the "stranger" to the same extent that they are commanded on the native and Deut.14:21 where we may give the "stranger in our gates" carcasses of animals that are otherwise prohibited to native Jews.

So the verse that you've quoted is commanding Jews to express love to converts to Judaism just as we are required to love native born Jews.
 
Last edited:

Curious George

Veteran Member
Um, no, because that text isn't referring to any Hebrew people. I'll explain.

As I stated earlier, the word "ger" has a variety of meanings depending on its location and use. The intitial claim had to do with an injunction not to oppress the ger. In that use, as shown, it meant "convert." Now, the fact is, the reason for the injunction was because the Hebrews were "ger" in Egypt" but in that use, as a label for the Hebrews, it meant something else. The law was created not through a strict transference (because you were A, and they are A, treat them the way you wanted to be treated) but because of analogy (because you were one meaning of "A" and they are another meaning of "A" you should treat them in the way you want to be treated). But because the tradition defines what each of those meanings of "A" is, it cannot be applied to other potential meanings, which is what the OP is attempting to do.

So unless you can show me a Judaic tradition that applies it in 19:33 to a generic stranger, then the fact that in the second half of 19:34 it might include something else is irrelevant. To express this, I will quote the Stone tanach's translation

19:33 "When a proselyte dwells among you in your land do not taunt him."
19:34 "The proselyte who dwells with you shall be like a native among you, and you shall love him like yourself, for you were aliens in the land of Egypt -- I am Hashem your God"
It is interesting seeing that verse without the parallel terms. "Since the Jewish people were themselves strangers(gerim), they are not in a position to demean a convert (ger) because he is a stranger in their midst." B.M. 59b. Because the Jewish people were one type of A they should not demean another type of A. Yet you would have me believe that this does not apply when the Jewish people were dealing with someone of the same type of A that they were. You have not shown that any Rabbinical reading excludes recognizing refugees as converts or proselytes. In other words, you have yet to show a source that doesn't allow the user to assume this is true of geopolitical proselytes or that we should assume proselyte or convert to only extend to religious converts.

It seems as though you really want it apply only to religious converts, but that doesn't make it so.
 
Top