Boy, I wish I had a dollar every time I heard this sorry apologetic---no insult intended. Maybe I should copy my answer to a notepad to save me from having to retype it. Anyway (short version):
The reason Bibles use the words they do is because they were chosen to best express the meaning in the original text. If the translators honestly thought the Hebrew
עֶרְוָה in Leviticus 18:6 meant "not wearing conventional garb" why would they deceive the reader by using a word like "naked" which doesn't convey that meaning at all, but instead means "without clothing"? They wouldn't. They would say something along the lines of:
"None of you shall approach any one of his close relatives to display their lack of conventional garb. I am the Lord."
But they didn't.
So, in as much as they didn't choose "lack of conventional garb," but chose to use "naked" it only makes sense that that's what they intended: "without clothing." Furthermore, if one buys the story that the Bible is god's inspired word, and as such best conveys his intended meaning, then every word used carries his approval of its common meaning rather than some equivocal definition the reader must guess at or puzzle out. I'm sure most Christians don't believe god likes to intentionally mislead is followers.
But there was no "has to." God was under no obligation to do anything except what he wished. He could have simply given A&E a "slap on the wrist" rather than pass along their punishment to the millions of guiltless people that followed. An act that reeks of pure evil---of course god did admit that he creates evil, so I guess his action following the A&E incident should come as no surprise.
And isn't it obvious why it's now the case?
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