Fluffy
A fool
That is not one of the most accurate of thread titles but what I am specifically wanting to look at here are instances of rape that happen between people who know each other and where alcohol or some other intoxicant is being used by one or both parties.
It seems intuitive to say that if you have taken some sort of drug (like alcohol) then you are unable to give consent. Therefore, if you are drunk, give consent and later regret that decision, then rape could be said to have occured.
Does this definition of rape damage its objectivity since it no longer relies on the feelings of the people at the time but their feelings afterwards? If both people are sober and give consent yet afterwards, one of them changes their mind, should this then be seen as rape? What if both of them give consent, then consume alcohol and have sex and then one of them changes their mind?
What about if both of them are drunk and give consent but one of them decides afterwards that they were raped. Since consent cannot be given whilst under intoxication, should both parties technically be said to have been raped? If one party is fine with the sex and one of them isn't can the person who is fine about it be taken to court for rape despite the fact that they were both drunk?
Similarly, if we are suggesting that rape can now be decided upon after the fact, can somebody who has been jailed for statutory rape be removed from prison when the person they had sex with comes of age and is therefore able to back date consent (if they wish) in a similar way to how somebody who has had sex whilst drunk is able to back date consent (or lack there of)?
It seems intuitive to say that if you have taken some sort of drug (like alcohol) then you are unable to give consent. Therefore, if you are drunk, give consent and later regret that decision, then rape could be said to have occured.
Does this definition of rape damage its objectivity since it no longer relies on the feelings of the people at the time but their feelings afterwards? If both people are sober and give consent yet afterwards, one of them changes their mind, should this then be seen as rape? What if both of them give consent, then consume alcohol and have sex and then one of them changes their mind?
What about if both of them are drunk and give consent but one of them decides afterwards that they were raped. Since consent cannot be given whilst under intoxication, should both parties technically be said to have been raped? If one party is fine with the sex and one of them isn't can the person who is fine about it be taken to court for rape despite the fact that they were both drunk?
Similarly, if we are suggesting that rape can now be decided upon after the fact, can somebody who has been jailed for statutory rape be removed from prison when the person they had sex with comes of age and is therefore able to back date consent (if they wish) in a similar way to how somebody who has had sex whilst drunk is able to back date consent (or lack there of)?