Desert Snake
Veteran Member
This thread is for the presentation of Scripture, verses, which attest to the Deity , or not, of Jesus, please state which Bible you are using.
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This thread is for the presentation of Scripture, verses, which attest to the Deity , or not, of Jesus, please state which Bible you are using.
The gospel of John represents the highest christology in the New Testament and even then does not quite equate Jesus with God. That being so it is hard not to agree with angellous_evangellous that there are no verses to present in answer to the OP.
The most obvious is John 1:1. Here's the ESV:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Greek (taken from greekbible.com)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
To those who would argue that John 1:1c should properly be translated "And the Word was a god" due to the lack of a definite article before "Theos", please tell me how you would translate the Greek of Romans 8:33, where both "Theou" and "Theos" both lack the definite article:
τίς ἐγκαλέσει κατὰ ἐκλεκτῶν θεοῦ; θεὸς ὁ δικαιῶν:
This thread is for the presentation of Scripture, verses, which attest to the Deity , or not, of Jesus, please state which Bible you are using.
The most obvious is John 1:1. Here's the ESV:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Greek (taken from greekbible.com)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
To those who would argue that John 1:1c should properly be translated "And the Word was a god" due to the lack of a definite article before "Theos", please tell me how you would translate the Greek of Romans 8:33, where both "Theou" and "Theos" both lack the definite article:
τίς ἐγκαλέσει κατὰ ἐκλεκτῶν θεοῦ; θεὸς ὁ δικαιῶν:
The most obvious is John 1:1. Here's the ESV:
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Greek (taken from greekbible.com)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
To those who would argue that John 1:1c should properly be translated "And the Word was a god" due to the lack of a definite article before "Theos", please tell me how you would translate the Greek of Romans 8:33, where both "Theou" and "Theos" both lack the definite article:
τίς ἐγκαλέσει κατὰ ἐκλεκτῶν θεοῦ; θεὸς ὁ δικαιῶν:
True. Indeed Tertullian wrote:The trinity is a made up tradition. ( Luke 4:8.)
"I bid you also observe, that on my side I advance the passage where the Father said to the Son,
'Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten Thee.' (original Text (according to the writings of the early Church Fathers) of Luke's version of Jesus' Baptism)
If you want me to believe Him to be both the Father and the Son, show me some other passage
where it is declared,
'The Lord said unto Himself, I am my own Son, to-day have I begotten myself;'
or again,
'Before the morning did I beget myself;'
and likewise,
'I the Lord possessed Myself in the beginning of my ways for my own works; before all the hills,
too, did I beget myself;'
and whatever other passages are to the same effect. Why, moreover, could God the Lord of all
things, have hesitated to speak thus of Himself, if the fact had been so?"