• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Did Jesus practice the occult?

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Ingledsva said:
Doesn't sound ironic to me. Magic and Sorcery are practiced by the Hebrew throughout Tanakh.

He was accused of calling out demons by calling on Beelzebub Lord of demons. That would be a Sorcery charge.

The word translated as "carpenter" is actually "crafter" and in the related Aramaic goes back to Sorcerer.

And (if you agree these sources are about him) the Talmud calls him a Sorcerer.
Your middle two statements are inaccurate.

The first and last statements are obviously the results of perception, not necessarily reality. Do you know of any verified methods in sorcery? The writers of the Talmud likely had no idea what they were even referring to.

You are wrong on all counts.

For instance - In Genesis 30: 37 – 41 Jacob is using the magic rods for fertility magic.

Gen 44:5 Is this not the same in which my Master mixes potions, and divines/hisses/incants enchantments? You have done evil in this that you did!
Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.

Talmud (Sanhedrin 43A) 33 [In contradiction to this] it was taught: On the eve of the Passover Yeshu34 was hanged. For forty days before the execution took place, a herald went forth and cried, 'He is going forth to be stoned because he has practiced sorcery and enticed Israel to apostasy.

Luke 11:15 But some of them said, "He, By Beelzebub ruler of the demons, casts out the demons.
*
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Except that Jesus said to the disciples, that he taught the people in parables, so that "hearing they may not understand", but he explained his parables to his disciples in secret.
Filling in details that were not divulged to others is not an occult practice. Telling someone something in confidence is not occult practice.

As to the OP, first one would have to define what they mean by occult.
Definition of "Occult" from the Oxford Dictionary....

"NOUN (the occult) mystical, supernatural, or magical powers, practices, or phenomena.

adjective

1involving or relating to mystical, supernatural, or magical powers, practices, or phenomena:"

According to some definitions I've seen, I'd have to say yes, Jesus did practice the occult, but according to other definitions, the answer would be changed to no, he did not.
Using God's power in the open and acknowledging the source is not occult.
It is satan's unauthorized use of supernatural power and hiding the fact that he is behind it...that is occult. The Bible has accounts of satan mimicking God's power to mislead. He did so with Pharaoh's magic practicing priests when Moses performed miracles. (Ex 7:8-12) That was using occult power.
Paul and Silas had an encounter with a spirit possessed girl who practiced the art of prediction. (Acts 16:16-19)That was using occult power.

God's instruction to Israel before entering the promised land was...“When you enter the land which the Lord your God gives you, you shall not learn to imitate the detestable things of those nations. 10 There shall not be found among you anyone who makes his son or his daughter pass through the fire, one who uses divination, one who practices witchcraft, or one who interprets omens, or a sorcerer, 11 or one who casts a spell, or a medium, or a spiritist, or one who calls up the dead. 12 For whoever does these things is detestable to the Lord; and because of these detestable things the Lord your God will drive them out before you." (Deut 18:8-12 NASB) These identify occult practices, which are detestable to God. Jesus did nothing detestable to his Father.

From an objective viewpoint, there definitely seemed to be some mystical/occult thing going on with Jesus, IMO.
God does not employ "magic"....that is the devil's domain.

Nothing to do with the exercise of God's power is hidden. Even when the foretold end of the present system comes, all will know that it is Jehovah's power that is bringing the wicked to their finish.
Ezekiel prophesied..."I will pour out My wrath on you very soon; I will exhaust My anger against you and judge you according to your ways.
I will punish you for all your detestable practices. I will not look on you with pity or spare you.
I will punish you for your ways and for your detestable practices within you.
Then you will know that it is I, Yahweh, who strikes."
(Ezek 7:8,9)
Nothing hidden there.
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
You are wrong on all counts.

For instance - In Genesis 30: 37 – 41 Jacob is using the magic rods for fertility magic.

Gen 44:5 Is this not the same in which my Master mixes potions, and divines/hisses/incants enchantments? You have done evil in this that you did!
Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.

Talmud (Sanhedrin 43A) 33 [In contradiction to this] it was taught: On the eve of the Passover Yeshu34 was hanged. For forty days before the execution took place, a herald went forth and cried, 'He is going forth to be stoned because he has practiced sorcery and enticed Israel to apostasy.

Luke 11:15 But some of them said, "He, By Beelzebub ruler of the demons, casts out the demons.
*

As far as I can read, there were no 'magic rods' used. The water the flock drank was directly, and naturally manipulated by running through certain raw wood. Neither is the translation of Genesis 44 accurate. Where did you get these translations?

Does the Talmud provide any evidence of sorcery? Even a simple definition? If so, provide it here. If not, it's unfounded.

Notice in Luke they never said Jesus used Beelzebub's name. They instead were the ones who offered the name up, as an explanation of His successful expulsions/ conversions. And it is also important to note- you won't have any success using Beelzebub's name to do what Jesus was accused of. Why? Because it was always an impossibility, or at the least, a largely insufficient method.
 

rusra02

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Sounds ironic yet in the stories, Jesus did engage in numberology, psychic prophecy, and performed feats of raising the dead and such. It does hint of occult type practices and or influences. Wonder what thoughts, if any, are on it?

Jesus performed miracles to prove he was the Messiah, and always attributed his works as coming from God's power. Therefore, I am convinced Jesus never practiced occult arts, something clearly condemned in the Holy Scriptures. References are Deuteronomy 18:10-12, John 10:24,25, Acts 10:38 and many others.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Sleeppy said:
Your middle two statements are inaccurate.

The first and last statements are obviously the results of perception, not necessarily reality. Do you know of any verified methods in sorcery? The writers of the Talmud likely had no idea what they were even referring to.
*
Ingledsva said:
You are wrong on all counts.

For instance - In Genesis 30: 37 – 41 Jacob is using the magic rods for fertility magic.

Gen 44:5 Is this not the same in which my Master mixes potions, and divines/hisses/incants enchantments? You have done evil in this that you did!
Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.

Talmud (Sanhedrin 43A) 33 [In contradiction to this] it was taught: On the eve of the Passover Yeshu34 was hanged. For forty days before the execution took place, a herald went forth and cried, 'He is going forth to be stoned because he has practiced sorcery and enticed Israel to apostasy.

Luke 11:15 But some of them said, "He, By Beelzebub ruler of the demons, casts out the demons.
1. As far as I can read, there were no 'magic rods' used. The water the flock drank was directly, and naturally manipulated by running through certain raw wood. 2. Neither is the translation of Genesis 44 accurate. Where did you get these translations?

3. Does the Talmud provide any evidence of sorcery? Even a simple definition? If so, provide it here. If not, it's unfounded.

4. Notice in Luke they never said Jesus used Beelzebub's name. They instead were the ones who offered the name up, as an explanation of His successful expulsions/ conversions. 5. And it is also important to note- you won't have any success using Beelzebub's name to do what Jesus was accused of. Why? Because it was always an impossibility, or at the least, a largely insufficient method.

1. 38 – And he set the rods which he had pilled before the flocks in the gutters in the watering troughs when the flocks came to drink, that they should conceive when they came to drink.

In other words fertility magic. Rods is H4731. Note the "divining rod" in the Strong's translation = MAGIC. That is definitely the way it is used in that sentence.

2. Gen 44:5 even in the standard KJV says Divination. He is using a special bowl to do magic. The word "Nachash" is used twice - together. Look it up - Strong's H5172.

Gen 44: 15 also uses "nachash" twice together, which possibilities come out as - Hiss magic, or - whisper incantations, etc. Thus


Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.


3. LOL! Talmud, Tanakh, and New Testament provide NO evidence of anything supernatural - including a God. We are just debating what they say.

4. I am showing that they thought of him as a Sorcerer, - and called him such.

5. LOL! You won't have any success using YHVH's name either.

*
 
Last edited:

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
*

1. 38 – And he set the rods which he had pilled before the flocks in the gutters in the watering troughs when the flocks came to drink, that they should conceive when they came to drink.

In other words fertility magic. Rods is H4731. Note the "divining rod" in the Strong's translation = MAGIC. That is definitely the way it is used in that sentence.

2. Gen 44:5 even in the standard KJV says Divination. He is using a special bowl to do magic. The word "Nachash" is used twice - together. Look it up - Strong's H5172.

Gen 44: 15 also uses "nachash" twice together, which possibilities come out as - Hiss magic, or - whisper incantations, etc. Thus


Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.


3. LOL! Talmud, Tanakh, and New Testament provide NO evidence of anything supernatural - including a God. We are just debating what they say.

4. I am showing that they thought of him as a Sorcerer, - and called him such.

5. LOL! You won't have any success using YHVH's name either.

*

This is a dead horse Ingledsva. All of this has already been explained to you.
You take things out of context and blow them out of all proportion. What you have said is nonsense.

Gen 30 is about Jacob and his conniving uncle trying to wrangle more years of work out of him for nothing. He has already tricked him into marrying the wrong daughter and asked him to work seven more years for the right one.
The episode with the sheep was Jehovah's blessing on Jacob whilst foiling all the tricks his uncle had up his sleeve to keep him from leaving.
Read the accounts for yourself...all of them, not just the bits you pick out to misinterpret.

Gen 44 is about Joseph in his role as Egyptian Prime Minister testing his brothers out to see if they have changed their attitude. He speaks about his Egyptian master, Pharaoh who was the reader of omens. His brothers do not recognize him so he plays his role to the hilt so as not to give himself away. The story ends really well.....from what you write, it is apparent that you haven't read it.

Enough with the false interpretations already. :facepalm: Good grief!
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
The pharisees certainly thought Jesus was working dark magic but then they also accused him of claiming to be god so they seemed rather confused.
 

Caladan

Agnostic Pantheist
The pharisees certainly thought Jesus was working dark magic but then they also accused him of claiming to be god so they seemed rather confused.
Actually that's a pretty consistent accusation, as both are blasphemous.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
You are talking about their accusations aren't you? They don't seem to be confused to me, as they accuse him of violating a series of taboos.

Yeah like healing the sick on the sabbath or claiming to be one with god. They are confused about what one with god meant. Jesus clarified to no avail.
 

Caladan

Agnostic Pantheist
Yeah like healing the sick on the sabbath or claiming to be one with god. They are confused about what one with god meant. Jesus clarified to no avail.
I notice you are backtracking from your original post. That's nice.
 

Sleeppy

Fatalist. Christian. Pacifist.
*



1. 38 – And he set the rods which he had pilled before the flocks in the gutters in the watering troughs when the flocks came to drink, that they should conceive when they came to drink.

In other words fertility magic. Rods is H4731. Note the "divining rod" in the Strong's translation = MAGIC. That is definitely the way it is used in that sentence.

2. Gen 44:5 even in the standard KJV says Divination. He is using a special bowl to do magic. The word "Nachash" is used twice - together. Look it up - Strong's H5172.

Gen 44: 15 also uses "nachash" twice together, which possibilities come out as - Hiss magic, or - whisper incantations, etc. Thus


Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.


3. LOL! Talmud, Tanakh, and New Testament provide NO evidence of anything supernatural - including a God. We are just debating what they say.

4. I am showing that they thought of him as a Sorcerer, - and called him such.

5. LOL! You won't have any success using YHVH's name either.

*


1) Genesis 30:37-42
And Jacob taketh to himself a rod of fresh poplar, and of the hazel and chesnut, and doth peel in them white peelings, making bare the white that [is] on the rods, and setteth up the rods which he hath peeled in the gutters in the watering troughs (when the flock cometh in to drink), over-against the flock, that they may conceive in their coming in to drink; and the flocks conceive at the rods, and the flock beareth ring-straked, speckled, and spotted ones. And the lambs hath Jacob parted, and he putteth the face of the flock towards the ring-straked, also all the brown in the flock of Laban, and he setteth his own droves by themselves, and hath not set them near Laban's flock. And it hath come to pass whenever the strong ones of the flock conceive, that Jacob set the rods before the eyes of the flock in the gutters, to cause them to conceive by the rods, and when the flock is feeble, he doth not set [them]; and the feeble ones have been Laban's, and the strong ones Jacob's.

Read... Nothing magic going on. No divination.

He put bare wood into the water source of the flock that he was sifting out of a larger flock. The ones who drank water flowing through the wood became stronger, and as result produced greater numbers of a well-nourished flock.

Why did they become stronger? Either they were drinking a mixture of water more beneficial to their health, or the mixture caused them to do something that was directly beneficial to themselves; perhaps it boosted their appetites, for instance.

Now, would the ignorant of that time-period call it magic? Or supernatural? Of course. And they mistakenly mislabeled many things, as we do to this day. None of the scribes or prophets were immune to the limitations of human perception.

2)
Genesis 44:5
Is not this that with which my lord drinketh? and he observeth diligently with it; ye have done evil [in] that which ye have done.'

Genesis 44:15
Joseph saith to them, `What [is] this deed that ye have done? have ye not known that a man like me doth diligently observe?'

Assuming you've looked at Strong's.. Here's why context is important. You should be aware of both textual and cultural context. You also shouldn't neglect our current, scientific culture, which should be applied over the outdated suppositions of our predecessors.

3) Nothing is supernatural. That's foremost.

Secondly, evidence is not able to withstand perception. Neither is evidence incorruptible.

Lastly, perception may or may not become a hindrance to specific results.

4) They did. And this is called testimony. However, it is completely unfounded, in any direction. 'Sorcery' is an attempt to explain the unknown, in this instance. They provide no definition, clear reasoning, or record of events.

5) Acceptance of results, in this case, is according to perception. There is power in both names. Words themselves are powers of human understanding. You express limited understanding of God's name(s), and therefore very limited acceptance.
 

Saint Frankenstein

Here for the ride
Premium Member
Yeah like healing the sick on the sabbath or claiming to be one with god. They are confused about what one with god meant. Jesus clarified to no avail.

No, he most certainly did not clarify. He said "I and the father are one" (John 10:30). That can be taken a number of ways, as we see in the never-ending debates between trinitarian and non-trinitarian Christians.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
No, he most certainly did not clarify. He said "I and the father are one" (John 10:30). That can be taken a number of ways, as we see in the never-ending debates between trinitarian and non-trinitarian Christians.

He pointed to scripture saying we are "all sons and daughters of the most high".
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
No, he most certainly did not clarify. He said "I and the father are one" (John 10:30). That can be taken a number of ways, as we see in the never-ending debates between trinitarian and non-trinitarian Christians.

John 10:30:
When saying, “I and the Father are one,” did Jesus mean that they were equal or one and the same person? Some Trinitarians think so. But at John 17: 20-22, Jesus prayed regarding his disciples,“I make request, not concerning these only, but also concerning those putting faith in me through their word; in order that they may all be one just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me forth. Also, I have given them the glory that you have given me, that they may be one even as we are one.”

He used the same Greek word (hen) for “one” in all these instances. Obviously, Jesus’ disciples do not all become part of the Trinity. But they do come to share a oneness of purpose with the Father and the Son, the same sort of oneness that unites God and Christ.

No ambiguity in his statement unless you want to force a trinity in there. :rolleyes:
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Ingledsva said:
1. 38 – And he set the rods which he had pilled before the flocks in the gutters in the watering troughs when the flocks came to drink, that they should conceive when they came to drink.

In other words fertility magic. Rods is H4731. Note the "divining rod" in the Strong's translation = MAGIC. That is definitely the way it is used in that sentence.

2. Gen 44:5 even in the standard KJV says Divination. He is using a special bowl to do magic. The word "Nachash" is used twice - together. Look it up - Strong's H5172.

Gen 44: 15 also uses "nachash" twice together, which possibilities come out as - Hiss magic, or - whisper incantations, etc. Thus


Gen 44:15 And said to them Joseph, "Why this deed that you have done? Did you not know that a man such as I divines/hisses/incants enchantments.




3. LOL! Talmud, Tanakh, and New Testament provide NO evidence of anything supernatural - including a God. We are just debating what they say.

4. I am showing that they thought of him as a Sorcerer, - and called him such.

5. LOL! You won't have any success using YHVH's name either.
This is a dead horse Ingledsva. All of this has already been explained to you.
You take things out of context and blow them out of all proportion. What you have said is nonsense.

Gen 30 is about Jacob and his conniving uncle trying to wrangle more years of work out of him for nothing. He has already tricked him into marrying the wrong daughter and asked him to work seven more years for the right one.
The episode with the sheep was Jehovah's blessing on Jacob whilst foiling all the tricks his uncle had up his sleeve to keep him from leaving.
Read the accounts for yourself...all of them, not just the bits you pick out to misinterpret.

Gen 44 is about Joseph in his role as Egyptian Prime Minister testing his brothers out to see if they have changed their attitude. He speaks about his Egyptian master, Pharaoh who was the reader of omens. His brothers do not recognize him so he plays his role to the hilt so as not to give himself away. The story ends really well.....from what you write, it is apparent that you haven't read it.

Enough with the false interpretations already. :facepalm: Good grief!

LOL! NOT!

You explain nothing.

You speak; but prove not a thing about what is being discussed.

I showed the actual quotes.

I might add that you are ignoring other corroborating verses - such as Joseph getting ahead in Egypt because he does magic for Pharaoh.

You also post "other" parts, leaving out the verses in question, which PROVE what I said is correct.


Here is how the LITV (Literal Translation) translates 44:15 -


(LITV) And Joseph said to them, What is this deed which you have done? Did you not know that a man like me would practice divination?


You will also note that in 44:5, the servant corroborates this by -


44:5 Is not this it in which my lord drinketh, and whereby indeed he (H5172) divines/hisses/incants (H5172) enchantments ? ye have done evil in so doing.


Here is the King James version of 44:5 - which leaves out one of the "nachash" H1572 - but still has him practicing divination!


(KJV) Is not this it in which my lord drinketh, and whereby indeed he divineth? ye have done evil in so doing.


*
And more corroboration of Jacob's "RODS" being Divining Robs.


Here is the HRB (Hebraic Roots Bible) translation of Gen 30:41-


(HRB) And it happened that whenever the strong flocks conceived, Jacob placed the rods before the eyes of the flocks, before the troughs, that they might conceive by the rods.


And my translation -


Gen 30:40 And when it came to pass that all the flock were in heat, and ready to breed, Jacob put his Divining Rods before the flocks, in the troughs, that they might conceive by the Divining Rods.


If you read the story you will find out why he used magic on the flocks! He was told he could take all of the flocks that were ringstraked, speckled, and spotted. Then Laban gave all such to his sons and they left to hide them from Jacob. He used magic rods/wands to make the remaining NON R, S, S flocks breed ringstraked, speckled, and spotted!


KJV (King James) Gen 30:39 And the flocks conceived before the rods, and brought forth cattle ringstraked, speckled, and spotted.


So, -it is you who is wrong.

*



 
Last edited:

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
1) Genesis 30:37-42
And Jacob taketh to himself a rod of fresh poplar, and of the hazel and chesnut, and doth peel in them white peelings, making bare the white that [is] on the rods, and setteth up the rods which he hath peeled in the gutters in the watering troughs (when the flock cometh in to drink), over-against the flock, that they may conceive in their coming in to drink; and the flocks conceive at the rods, and the flock beareth ring-straked, speckled, and spotted ones. And the lambs hath Jacob parted, and he putteth the face of the flock towards the ring-straked, also all the brown in the flock of Laban, and he setteth his own droves by themselves, and hath not set them near Laban's flock. And it hath come to pass whenever the strong ones of the flock conceive, that Jacob set the rods before the eyes of the flock in the gutters, to cause them to conceive by the rods, and when the flock is feeble, he doth not set [them]; and the feeble ones have been Laban's, and the strong ones Jacob's.

Read... Nothing magic going on. No divination.

He put bare wood into the water source of the flock that he was sifting out of a larger flock. The ones who drank water flowing through the wood became stronger, and as result produced greater numbers of a well-nourished flock.

Why did they become stronger? Either they were drinking a mixture of water more beneficial to their health, or the mixture caused them to do something that was directly beneficial to themselves; perhaps it boosted their appetites, for instance.

Now, would the ignorant of that time-period call it magic? Or supernatural? Of course. And they mistakenly mislabeled many things, as we do to this day. None of the scribes or prophets were immune to the limitations of human perception.

2)
Genesis 44:5
Is not this that with which my lord drinketh? and he observeth diligently with it; ye have done evil [in] that which ye have done.'

Genesis 44:15
Joseph saith to them, `What [is] this deed that ye have done? have ye not known that a man like me doth diligently observe?'

Assuming you've looked at Strong's.. Here's why context is important. You should be aware of both textual and cultural context. You also shouldn't neglect our current, scientific culture, which should be applied over the outdated suppositions of our predecessors.

3) Nothing is supernatural. That's foremost.

Secondly, evidence is not able to withstand perception. Neither is evidence incorruptible.

Lastly, perception may or may not become a hindrance to specific results.

4) They did. And this is called testimony. However, it is completely unfounded, in any direction. 'Sorcery' is an attempt to explain the unknown, in this instance. They provide no definition, clear reasoning, or record of events.

5) Acceptance of results, in this case, is according to perception. There is power in both names. Words themselves are powers of human understanding. You express limited understanding of God's name(s), and therefore very limited acceptance.

And you would be wrong. See my reply to JayJayDee.

"diligently observe?" LOL! :D What do you think he is "diligently observing' in that bowl? Bugs?

He is Scrying in a bowl.

And for your information, - I am translating from the texts, and checking my translations against the generally accepted translations, and Hebrew dictionaries. All of which I have on my computer.

--- I forgot to add that the reason for the magic rods before the flocks - If you read the story you will find out why he used magic on the flocks! He was told he could take all of the flocks that were ringstraked, speckled, and spotted. Then Laban gave all such to his sons and they left to hide them from Jacob. He used magic rods/wands to make the remaining NON R, S, S, flocks breed ringstraked, speckled, and spotted, - so he would have his wage, and inheritance, when he left!


*
 
Last edited:

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
LOL! NOT!

You explain nothing.

You speak; but prove not a thing about what is being discussed.

I showed the actual quotes.

Out of context and skewed beyond belief. :facepalm:

I might add that you are ignoring other corroborating verses - such as Joseph getting ahead in Egypt because he does magic for Pharaoh.

You also post "other" parts, leaving out the verses in question, which PROVE what I said is correct.
Sorry, nothing you said is correct. "Joseph getting ahead in Egypt because he does magic for Pharaoh". Good grief.

Joseph got to where he was for interpreting Pharaoh's dream, given to him by God and interpreted by one of God's servants. Nothing hidden there. He languished in prison for years on false charges of rape.

He was sent ahead to Egypt to preserve Abraham's seed through one of the worst droughts Egypt had ever experienced. His management skills back up by the spirit of his God were what got him ahead.


Here is how the LITV (Literal Translation) translates 44:15 -

(LITV) And Joseph said to them, What is this deed which you have done? Did you not know that a man like me would practice divination?
Context!...he was testing his brothers out by not identifying himself to them. His saying that to them was part of his act. Read the whole account and you will see. They had no idea that he was their brother Joseph.
Besides, the law had not been written at that point, so even if Joseph had practiced divination, he would not even have been breaking a law that was not yet law, would he?

You will also note that in 44:5, the servant corroborates this by -

44:5 Is not this it in which my lord drinketh, and whereby indeed he (H5172) divines/hisses/incants (H5172) enchantments ? ye have done evil in so doing.
It corroborates nothing. These practices were common in Egypt.

And more corroboration of Jacob's "RODS" being Divining Robs.


Here is the HRB (Hebraic Roots Bible) translation of Gen 30:41-


(HRB) And it happened that whenever the strong flocks conceived, Jacob placed the rods before the eyes of the flocks, before the troughs, that they might conceive by the rods.


What am I missing here
Ingledsva ?

Have we not already established that "occult" means hidden.
When it is practiced by the devil and his followers it is occult. The "hidden" misuse of supernatural power for the purpose of deception.

When it is done by God himself it is not occult or hidden. Do you understand that?

It is the source of the power that is the issue. Not the just power itself.

And my translation -

Gen 30:40 And when it came to pass that all the flock were in heat, and ready to breed, Jacob put his Divining Rods before the flocks, in the troughs, that they might conceive by the Divining Rods.
YOUR translation? You have your own translation? :rolleyes: Why am I not surprised?

If you read the story you will find out why he used magic on the flocks! He was told he could take all of the flocks that were ringstraked, speckled, and spotted. Then Laban gave all such to his sons and they left to hide them from Jacob. He used magic rods/wands to make the remaining NON R, S, S flocks breed ringstraked, speckled, and spotted!
God does not do "magic". That was forbidden in Israel as coming from the devil. It is a "detestable" thing to the only one who can authorize the use of supernatural power.

KJV (King James) Gen 30:39 And the flocks conceived before the rods, and brought forth cattle ringstraked, speckled, and spotted.
You are still missing the point in your haste to point out so called "divination".
When God does it, it is not hidden or evil. When God blesses his servants by performing supernatural events on their behalf, it is his blessing.... like parting the Red Sea, like turning Aaron's rod into a serpent, like the resurrection of Lazarus....it is the legitimate exercise of God's power through his servants who use it in a legitimate way.
When the devil uses supernatural power to deceive, then it is "occult"...get it?

So, -it is you who is wrong.
Let the readers be the judge of that. :ignore:
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Out of context and skewed beyond belief. :facepalm:

Sorry, nothing you said is correct. "Joseph getting ahead in Egypt because he does magic for Pharaoh". Good grief.

Joseph got to where he was for interpreting Pharaoh's dream, given to him by God and interpreted by one of God's servants. Nothing hidden there. He languished in prison for years on false charges of rape.

He was sent ahead to Egypt to preserve Abraham's seed through one of the worst droughts Egypt had ever experienced. His management skills back up by the spirit of his God were what got him ahead.


Context!...he was testing his brothers out by not identifying himself to them. His saying that to them was part of his act. Read the whole account and you will see. They had no idea that he was their brother Joseph.
Besides, the law had not been written at that point, so even if Joseph had practiced divination, he would not even have been breaking a law that was not yet law, would he?

It corroborates nothing. These practices were common in Egypt.



What am I missing here Ingledsva ?

Have we not already established that "occult" means hidden.
When it is practiced by the devil and his followers it is occult. The "hidden" misuse of supernatural power for the purpose of deception.

When it is done by God himself it is not occult or hidden. Do you understand that?

It is the source of the power that is the issue. Not the just power itself.

YOUR translation? You have your own translation? :rolleyes: Why am I not surprised?

God does not do "magic". That was forbidden in Israel as coming from the devil. It is a "detestable" thing to the only one who can authorize the use of supernatural power.

You are still missing the point in your haste to point out so called "divination".
When God does it, it is not hidden or evil. When God blesses his servants by performing supernatural events on their behalf, it is his blessing.... like parting the Red Sea, like turning Aaron's rod into a serpent, like the resurrection of Lazarus....it is the legitimate exercise of God's power through his servants who use it in a legitimate way.
When the devil uses supernatural power to deceive, then it is "occult"...get it?

Let the readers be the judge of that. :ignore:

MY-MY! You just cannot face the facts, even when they are spelled out for you. :sarcastic

*
 
Top