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Did Jesus say he was God???

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
so did jesus say he was god or was he pussyfooting around the notion in order to keep from being killed for blasphemy?

Neither. Chapter 8, in context, is not about Yeshua claiming to be "God". That's not even the reason they sought to kill him. To the Jews he was showing disrespect when he claimed to exist before Abraham. They asked him the question....'How could you have seen Abraham, you're not even fifty yet'....The context of why they wanted to kill him starts way before chapter 8 and none of it was because he declared himself to be "God".

Additionally John 8:28 helps to clarify he did claim to be "God"

[FONT=Arial, Verdana, Helvetica]So Yeshua said, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man then you will realize that I am [he] and that I do nothing on my own, but I speak what the Father taught me.[/FONT]
 
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Mark2020

Well-Known Member
You ignored all this, among a lot of other posts:

The point is that "Ego eimi" didn't commence and was used absolutely in John 8:58. No reference to its commencement is given.
If you compare John 15:27 to John 8:58, you'll see that in the former, there is a time period specified, and eimi has a predicate. It acts as a copula here.
However, in John 8:58 there is no time period (no reference to the commencement of 'eimi'). It is used in the absolute sense expressing timeless being.

But the argument that kills this all is the contrast between genesthai and eimi:

[FONT=&quot]The contrast between [/FONT]γενεσθαι[FONT=&quot][genesthai] (entrance into existence of Abraham) and [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT=&quot][eimi] (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between [/FONT]ἐν[FONT=&quot] [en] in 1:1 and [/FONT]ἐγενετο[FONT=&quot] [egeneto] in 1:14. See the contrast also in Psa. 90:2 between God ([/FONT]εἰ[FONT=&quot] [ei], art) and the mountains ([/FONT]γενηθηναι[FONT=&quot] [genēthēnai]). See the same use of [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT=&quot] [eimi] in John 6:20; 9:9; 8:24, 28; 18:6.[/FONT]

They are simply different verbs. If the meaning intended was that Jesus came into existence like Abraham, but before him, the same verb would have been used.

I told you there are much more translations for "I am" which makes it irrelevant.

I already replied to the Syriac translations.

For old translations, the most important one by far would be Coptic, and I already showed its translation:

"I am" or "I am being"

Coptic

(John 8:58 [Coptic Bohairic]) ⲡⲉϫⲉ ⲓ̅ⲏ̅ⲥ ⲛⲱⲟⲩ ϫⲉ ⲁⲙⲏⲛ ⲁⲙⲏⲛ ϯϫⲱ `ⲙⲙⲟⲥ ⲛⲱⲧⲉⲛ ϫⲉ `ⲙⲡⲁⲧⲉ ⲁⲃⲣⲁⲁⲙ ϣⲱⲡⲓ `ⲁⲛⲟⲕ ⲡⲉ
Horner's translation: ... before Abraham was, I am

(John 8:58 [Coptic Sahidic]) ΠΕϪΕ ΙΗСΟΥС ΝΑΥ ϪΕ ϨΑΜΗΝ ϨΑΜΗΝ ϮϪШ ΜΜΟС ΝΗΤΝ ϪΕ ΕΜΠΑΤΕ ΑΒΡΑϨΑΜ ϢШΠΕ ΑΝΟΚ ϮϢΟΟΠ.
Horner's translation: ... before Abraham became, I, I am being
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
You know you could have been taken seriously if you continued our discussion about this verse, instead of running away and giving such useless words.

The fact that you found them "useless" means very little. They weren't meant for you as they were directed to (waitasec). I'm sure he doesn't find them "useless" as I was simply responding to his question.
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
The fact that you found them "useless" means very little. They weren't meant for you as they were directed to (waitasec). I'm sure he doesn't find them "useless" as I was simply responding to his question.
I'm sure he doesn't. But you gave no proof for your words. You only ignored my posts about it and gave some baseless words.
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
In order to go with a translation that is against the vast majority of translations and scholars' opinions, you should have more than that. Otherwise, this shows a biased view.

You are yet to show a reply to this:
[FONT=&quot]The contrast between [/FONT]γενεσθαι[FONT=&quot][genesthai] (entrance into existence of Abraham) and [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT=&quot][eimi] (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between [/FONT]ἐν[FONT=&quot] [en] in 1:1 and [/FONT]ἐγενετο[FONT=&quot] [egeneto] in 1:14. See the contrast also in Psa. 90:2 between God ([/FONT]εἰ[FONT=&quot] [ei], art) and the mountains ([/FONT]γενηθηναι[FONT=&quot] [genēthēnai]). See the same use of [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT=&quot] [eimi] in John 6:20; 9:9; 8:24, 28; 18:6.[/FONT]

They are simply different verbs. If the meaning intended was that Jesus came into existence like Abraham, but before him, the same verb would have been used.

which as I said is as important as the absolute use of eimi which expresses timeless being.
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
The same contrast is very clear here:
Psalm 90:2
Before the mountains were born or you brought forth the earth and the world, from everlasting to everlasting you are God.
πρὸ τοῦ ὄρη γενηθῆναι καὶ πλασθῆναι τὴν γῆν καὶ τὴν οἰκουμένην καὶ ἀπὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος ἕως τοῦ αἰῶνος σὺ εἶ

Note how "eimi" is used absolutely here too: σὺ εἶ (You are God)


It's actually similar to:
John 8:58

"before Abraham was born, I am!"
πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί

σὺ εἶ: you are (You are God)
ἐγὼ εἰμί:
I am
The same verb ειμι, Present active indicative.

So by comparison, not only does it mean "I am", it means "I am God"
 
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Shermana

Heretic
There's an "El" in Psalm 90:2 in the Hebrew.

Regardless, to say that Jesus said "I am G-d" makes no sense gramatically in the reference to Abraham having been.

Now which version of the Septuagint are you using exactly?

http://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/sep/psa090.htm#002

2 ἐρεῖ τῷ κυρίῳ ἀντιλήμπτωρ μου εἶ καὶ καταφυγή μου ὁ θεός μου ἐλπιῶ ἐπ᾽ αὐτόν


Hmmm, apparently the particular translation you are using is different than this one, could it be....that the one you are using is possibly...in error?

http://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Def.show/RTD/isbe/ID/8699/Text-Of-Old-Testament.htm


The verse-division was not shown in the prose books. The present division is frequently wrong and the Septuagint different from the Hebrew: e.g. Genesis 49:19-20; Psalms 42:6-7; Jeremiah 9:5-6; Psalms 90:2-3. Neither was there any division into chapters, or even books. Hence, the number of the psalms is doubtful. The Greek counts Psalms 9 and 10 as one, and also Psalms 114 and 115, at the same time splitting Psalms 116 and 147 each into two. The Syriac follows the Greek with regard to Psalms 114 and 147. Some manuscripts make one psalm of 42 and 43. In Acts 13:33, Codex Bezae, Psa. 2 appears as Psa. 1.

It appears that the known old Septuagint versions aren't exactly error-free, so why is their translation of 90:2 so trustworthy?


 
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Shermana

Heretic
Jesus created in the miracles of feeding the multitude and the miracle of giving sight to the man born blind.

Young's Literal Translation
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father is in me? the sayings that I speak to you, from myself I speak not, and the Father who is abiding in me, Himself doth the works;

John 10:14

Quite clearly, Yashua is saying that it's not himself who is doing the works or saying his teachings but acting as the means. The Spirit of the Father may fully dwell in the Holy Human Temple that is the Christ, but the Temple is not the source of its own power.
 

Mark2020

Well-Known Member
There's an "El" in Psalm 90:2 in the Hebrew.

Regardless, to say that Jesus said "I am G-d" makes no sense gramatically in the reference to Abraham having been.

Now which version of the Septuagint are you using exactly?

Septuagint: Psalms: Psalms Chapter 90

2 ἐρεῖ τῷ κυρίῳ ἀντιλήμπτωρ μου εἶ καὶ καταφυγή μου ὁ θεός μου ἐλπιῶ ἐπ᾽ αὐτόν


Hmmm, apparently the particular translation you are using is different than this one, could it be....that the one you are using is possibly...in error?

Could it be ... that you can't read Greek?
You have no idea that the numbering in the LXX is different?
You're off by 1 chapter, and you couldn't even see the difference in Greek! (check the meaning in English, that's embarrassing)

Try this:
Septuagint: Psalms: Psalms Chapter 89

More poor arguments...
 

Shermana

Heretic
Okay, I'll admit error on that one, I forgot the numbering is off by one. I saw the O Theos and clicked in a hurry.

Regardless, Jesus saying "I am G-d" makes no sense gramatically in comparison to Abraham having been. And you've failed to address the Aorist Active tense several times, writing it off as "useless words".
 
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