God created through the word? Being a tool of god doesn't make him The Creator.And you have no idea that Jesus created in the NT?
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God created through the word? Being a tool of god doesn't make him The Creator.And you have no idea that Jesus created in the NT?
This is like creating through His Wisdom or His Word.God created through the word? Being a tool of god doesn't make him The Creator.
Whoever wants to answer this. Did jesus ever call himself the creator?
so did jesus say he was god or was he pussyfooting around the notion in order to keep from being killed for blasphemy?
You know you could have been taken seriously if you continued our discussion about this verse, instead of running away and giving such useless words.Neither. Chapter 8, in context, is not about Yeshua claiming to be "God"...
The point is that "Ego eimi" didn't commence and was used absolutely in John 8:58. No reference to its commencement is given.
If you compare John 15:27 to John 8:58, you'll see that in the former, there is a time period specified, and eimi has a predicate. It acts as a copula here.
However, in John 8:58 there is no time period (no reference to the commencement of 'eimi'). It is used in the absolute sense expressing timeless being.
But the argument that kills this all is the contrast between genesthai and eimi:
[FONT="]The contrast between [/FONT]γενεσθαι[FONT="][genesthai] (entrance into existence of Abraham) and [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT="][eimi] (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between [/FONT]ἐν[FONT="] [en] in 1:1 and [/FONT]ἐγενετο[FONT="] [egeneto] in 1:14. See the contrast also in Psa. 90:2 between God ([/FONT]εἰ[FONT="] [ei], art) and the mountains ([/FONT]γενηθηναι[FONT="] [genēthēnai]). See the same use of [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT="] [eimi] in John 6:20; 9:9; 8:24, 28; 18:6.[/FONT]
They are simply different verbs. If the meaning intended was that Jesus came into existence like Abraham, but before him, the same verb would have been used.
I told you there are much more translations for "I am" which makes it irrelevant.
I already replied to the Syriac translations.
For old translations, the most important one by far would be Coptic, and I already showed its translation:
"I am" or "I am being"
Coptic
(John 8:58 [Coptic Bohairic]) ⲡⲉϫⲉ ⲓ̅ⲏ̅ⲥ ⲛⲱⲟⲩ ϫⲉ ⲁⲙⲏⲛ ⲁⲙⲏⲛ ϯϫⲱ `ⲙⲙⲟⲥ ⲛⲱⲧⲉⲛ ϫⲉ `ⲙⲡⲁⲧⲉ ⲁⲃⲣⲁⲁⲙ ϣⲱⲡⲓ `ⲁⲛⲟⲕ ⲡⲉ
Horner's translation: ... before Abraham was, I am
(John 8:58 [Coptic Sahidic]) ΠΕϪΕ ΙΗСΟΥС ΝΑΥ ϪΕ ϨΑΜΗΝ ϨΑΜΗΝ ϮϪШ ΜΜΟС ΝΗΤΝ ϪΕ ΕΜΠΑΤΕ ΑΒΡΑϨΑΜ ϢШΠΕ ΑΝΟΚ ϮϢΟΟΠ.
Horner's translation: ... before Abraham became, I, I am being
\This is like creating through His Wisdom or His Word.
But wasn't referring to that. I said in the NT.
You know you could have been taken seriously if you continued our discussion about this verse, instead of running away and giving such useless words.
Jesus created in the miracles of feeding the multitude and the miracle of giving sight to the man born blind.\
I referred to the NT. Doesn't narrow it very much.
I'm sure he doesn't. But you gave no proof for your words. You only ignored my posts about it and gave some baseless words.The fact that you found them "useless" means very little. They weren't meant for you as they were directed to (waitasec). I'm sure he doesn't find them "useless" as I was simply responding to his question.
I'm sure he doesn't. But you gave no proof for your words. You only ignored my posts about it and gave some baseless words.
It's not about pitting scholars against scholars , at least not to me.And we'll continue to pit non-trinitarian scholars against trinitarian scholars...but to what end...?
[FONT="]The contrast between [/FONT]γενεσθαι[FONT="][genesthai] (entrance into existence of Abraham) and [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT="][eimi] (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between [/FONT]ἐν[FONT="] [en] in 1:1 and [/FONT]ἐγενετο[FONT="] [egeneto] in 1:14. See the contrast also in Psa. 90:2 between God ([/FONT]εἰ[FONT="] [ei], art) and the mountains ([/FONT]γενηθηναι[FONT="] [genēthēnai]). See the same use of [/FONT]εἰμι[FONT="] [eimi] in John 6:20; 9:9; 8:24, 28; 18:6.[/FONT]
They are simply different verbs. If the meaning intended was that Jesus came into existence like Abraham, but before him, the same verb would have been used.
The verse-division was not shown in the prose books. The present division is frequently wrong and the Septuagint different from the Hebrew: e.g. Genesis 49:19-20; Psalms 42:6-7; Jeremiah 9:5-6; Psalms 90:2-3. Neither was there any division into chapters, or even books. Hence, the number of the psalms is doubtful. The Greek counts Psalms 9 and 10 as one, and also Psalms 114 and 115, at the same time splitting Psalms 116 and 147 each into two. The Syriac follows the Greek with regard to Psalms 114 and 147. Some manuscripts make one psalm of 42 and 43. In Acts 13:33, Codex Bezae, Psa. 2 appears as Psa. 1.
Jesus created in the miracles of feeding the multitude and the miracle of giving sight to the man born blind.
There's an "El" in Psalm 90:2 in the Hebrew.
Regardless, to say that Jesus said "I am G-d" makes no sense gramatically in the reference to Abraham having been.
Now which version of the Septuagint are you using exactly?
Septuagint: Psalms: Psalms Chapter 90
2 ἐρεῖ τῷ κυρίῳ ἀντιλήμπτωρ μου εἶ καὶ καταφυγή μου ὁ θεός μου ἐλπιῶ ἐπ᾽ αὐτόν
Hmmm, apparently the particular translation you are using is different than this one, could it be....that the one you are using is possibly...in error?
Your new edits gets the same reply:It appears that the known old Septuagint versions aren't exactly error-free, so why is their translation of 90:2 so trustworthy?
Useless.