Do Bible and Quran say the same thing about Parables?

[InvestigateTruth]

Do the Bible and the Quran, say the same thing with regards to Parables?

First, let's look at what Jesus said, according to the Gospel of Matthew:

Matthew 13:10-17

10The disciples came to him and asked, “Why do you speak to the people in parables?”

11He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them. 12Whoever has will be given more, and they will have an abundance. Whoever does not have, even what they have will be taken from them. 13This is why I speak to them in parables:

“Though seeing, they do not see;

though hearing, they do not hear or understand.

14In them is fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah:

“ ‘You will be ever hearing but never understanding;

you will be ever seeing but never perceiving.

15For this people’s heart has become calloused;......

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Now, here is what Quran says:


"But give glad tidings to those who believe and work righteousness, that their portion is Gardens, beneath which rivers flow. Every time they are fed with fruits therefrom, they say: "Why, this is what we were fed with before," for they are given things in similitude; and they have therein companions pure (and holy); and they abide therein (for ever)
Allah disdains not to use the similitude of things, lowest as well as highest. Those who believe know that it is truth from their Lord; but those who reject Faith say: "What means Allah by this similitude?" By it He causes many to stray, and many He leads into the right path; but He causes not to stray, except those who forsake (the path)," 2:25-26


It is also interesting that, the word Mutishabih in verse 2:25 is the same word in 3:7. Is there a connection between these verses and 3:7? Can we understand what Mutishabih means?

 

[InvestigateTruth]

This one from Mark 4:33-34 is very interesting:

"With many similar parables Jesus spoke the word to them, as much as they could understand. He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when he was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything."


What does that tell us?
That Jesus spoke in Parables with others, but with His own disciples, privately spoke plainly and told them everything. Meaning that, He did not tell everything to others.

But, is everything that Jesus told Privately to His disciples, written in the Bible?
If yes, prove it, if Not, why Not?

 

[IndigoChild5559]

This one from Mark 4:33-34 is very interesting:

"With many similar parables Jesus spoke the word to them, as much as they could understand. He did not say anything to them without using a parable. But when he was alone with his own disciples, he explained everything."


What does that tell us?
That Jesus spoke in Parables with others, but with His own disciples, privately spoke plainly and told them everything. Meaning that, He did not tell everything to others.

But, is everything that Jesus told Privately to His disciples, written in the Bible?
If yes, prove it, if Not, why Not?

Jesus taught using parables because he was smart and realized that fictitious stories are the best way to teach morals and religious ideas. As the adage goes, "Show. Don't tell."