Tinkerpeach
Active Member
It’s very clear if you don’t try and confuse it.There is no context in which the excuses you've proposed make sense - like technically Judas bought the land because he used the priests as a third party to buy the land for him when he threw the money away? Do you not see what mental gymnastics that requires?
In one version Judas possesses the money and he uses it. In the other he casts the money away and the priests then possess the money and they use it. It's unmistakably clear. Both of those things cannot be true
Here is an example: if a father gives his son 5000 to buy a car and the son goes and purchases it then who bought the car?
The son or the father?
Was it the father for providing the funds or the son for physically handing the money over?
Wouldn’t the answer be that they both did?