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Einstein and "spooky actions"

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
How can the "observer" see any quantum processes when every time such an observation is made the "observer" exists in two different states? Do these states magically come back to make one magically unified observer who now has not observed anything quantum but actually been in a state unique to quantum physics?
The observer can't perceive themselves as existing in a superposition, that'd be silly.

We have observed macroscopic molecules in two different "states" at the same time, we have been able to freely and consistently have a single photon act wave-like or particle-like over the course of one experiment by tuning measurement instruments back and forth.
And there's nothing inconsistent about this if you abandon all notion of "particle" and "wave" and say, "wibbly-wobbly quantum-y thing." (Doesn't your detector go ding when there's stuff? :p)

What, exactly, does saying observers are in superposition states explain?
It makes the bizarre and non-physical 'collapse' process vanish into a puff of smoke. It makes all interpretation of quantum mechanical results unnecessary - the equation is right, and that's all that needs to be said.

How do you incorporate your universal wavefunction into physics such that it is of any use to anybody?
Why would I need to incorporate it? That's what quantum mechanics already says - it says quarks and leptopns are quantum-y things, therefore everything built of quarks and leptopns is also a quantum-y thing albeit it is less obviously quantumy.

As for the math itself, ...that's trickier. Conditional probabilities happen somehow, but I'll get back to you on that. :p
 

zaybu

Active Member
QM would have it that the ”observer” collapses the wave. In the case of classical mechanisms higgs and gravity are the observers.

Edit: For spooky actions it has to be a vacuum. The moon has too much mass.

I don't think that QM says that. "Wave collapse" should be replaced by a measurement was observed. Whether observers are observing it or not, the moon is still there. This shows that this language, "wave collapses" is not the correct interpretation of QM. It was based on a misconception that the wavefunction was a real wave. It leads to a lot of nonsense that is still being passed around.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The observer can't perceive themselves as existing in a superposition, that'd be silly.
Then we can't observe any quantum process.

It makes the bizarre and non-physical 'collapse' process vanish into a puff of smoke.

No it doesn't. Because all you've done is say "look! we have a wave function!" And the entire community of physicists can say "great! what good is it now that you have removed the fundamental way quantum mechanics uses it and haven't supplied any method for connecting any quantum system to anything that would make any experiment demonstrate anything at all?"


It makes all interpretation of quantum mechanical results unnecessary - the equation is right, and that's all that needs to be said.

What equation? If you mean any equation that describes quantum systems as existing in some Hilbert space, then all of quantum mechanics fails as soon as you rely only on that equation because all of quantum mechanics depends upon the mathematical ways in which this equation can relate to experiments.

Why would I need to incorporate it? That's what quantum mechanics already says
No, it doesn't. It has specific wave functions that describe specific systems prepared in specific ways that are only possible if we use specific mathematical and physical means to "observe" them that require more than the wave functions.

As for the math itself, ...that's trickier. Conditional probabilities happen somehow, but I'll get back to you on that. :p
If you figure that out, skip me and go straight to the APS or some other association because what you've done outstrips proving the Riemann Hypothesis. On second thought, don't skip me. Hand me your material, don't make any back-ups, and provide very detailed notes. This is not because I plan to steal your idea and claim it as my own. It is for very logical and scientific reasons I can't get into because of important reasons.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
Then we can't observe any quantum process.
That's the second time you've said that and I still don't know what you mean. Why not? We can easily see the quantum effects behind the original interferometer experiment even though there's nothing odd going on there in terms of wavefunctions collapsing or what have you.

Also, the fact that you've asserted this seems to imply you've worked through the implications of superpositionable observers and know they disagree with what we actually see. Yet your major disagreement appears to be that knowing that exact fact is not possible. Which is it - do we know superpositioned observers are wrong, or not?

No it doesn't. Because all you've done is say "look! we have a wave function!" And the entire community of physicists can say "great! what good is it now that you have removed the fundamental way quantum mechanics uses it and haven't supplied any method for connecting any quantum system to anything that would make any experiment demonstrate anything at all?"
I'm not following how a model which includes (predictions of) observations made by the experimenters means that experiments don't demonstrate anything at all.

No, it doesn't. It has specific wave functions that describe specific systems prepared in specific ways that are only possible if we use specific mathematical and physical means to "observe" them that require more than the wave functions.
So, what, QM describes arbitarary subsets of the universe, but not the universe as a whole? :shrug:


If you figure that out, skip me and go straight to the APS or some other association because what you've done outstrips proving the Riemann Hypothesis. On second thought, don't skip me. Hand me your material, don't make any back-ups, and provide very detailed notes. This is not because I plan to steal your idea and claim it as my own. It is for very logical and scientific reasons I can't get into because of important reasons.
Fair enough. Do you prefer AES or Twofish?
trollsmily_zpsd8eac4c4.png
 
A simple explanation is that the moon is always being looked upon. We don't need humans to look at it, a detector can do the job, and so would my cat. In reality, the universe is always looking at the moon. The moon doesn't need us, petty creatures crawling on a piece of rock, to exist.
In practice, of course you are right. I'm talking about in principle supposing the Moon was perfectly isolated. If you like, just replace the word "Moon" with "particle" in what I said. The point is that in QM the probabilities are the things we measure, but what we (can) measure is not all that exists.

zaybu said:
Theoretically, yes,one can calculate the second spin, but that does mean a spooky action at a distance is actually forcing the second particle into a quantum state. That's why I proposed the second scenario to make you realize that one's knowledge of a theoretical value does not bring forth such instantaneous force.
Within the theory of QM, that is precisely what it means. What "second scenario" are you referring to? You have described a number of scenarios which do not tell us, one way or the other, whether action-at-a-distance occurs ... for example at one point you said "there is no singlet state", but as I said everyone agrees action-at-a-distance does not occur if there is no entanglement to begin with. I can come up with a scenario where photons behave like a wave, does that mean they never behave like a particle? No, in order to claim that I would have to show photons NEVER behave like particles, in ALL scenarios (not just the ones convenient for my argument).

zaybu said:
Of course, if you believe like you do that the wavefunction is real, then you will come to the conclusion there is a spooky action. The point is, the waves we use to calculate these outcomes don't represent real waves.

I have spent many years studying QFT, both in flat spacetime and curved spacetime, and what you don't seem to realize is that the wavefunction, the same object that is the solution to the Schroedinger equation, is no longer a state vector but becomes a field operator acting on the vacuum. You end up spending a lot of times studying such thing as <0I &#966;(x) &#966;(y)I0>, called a two-point correlation function, where &#966; is the field operator. The concept of a wave is off the radar in QFT. And people like you who've never study QFT are still stuck on the wave concept, when that is the least preoccupation. And fortunately, the people in the 40's and 50's ignored Einstein and went on to develop QFT, the most successful theory we have so far.
Okay, well we have been talking about QM, not QFT. After trying several arguments within QM, you have finally retreated to a claim about QFT that I cannot comment on, as I have not studied QFT in any real depth. It's not obvious to me how QFT could account for the apparent non-locality of the experimental outcome of Alice and Bob's measurements. But OTOH it would not shock me if nonlocality went away when you go from QM to the more accurate QFT. Nonlocality does go away in other cases, e.g. going from Newtonian gravitation to general relativity. Obviously locality is preferable to non-locality if we have the option.

My only problem problem with your QFT argument is that, because of your dancing around and contradicting yourself (and your sources) and saying clearly wrong things about QM, and clearly overstating your case there, I cannot take your word for it on QFT. Actually what really damages your credibility is not that you said wrong things about QM (we all make errors) but that you won't admit it, even when clearly demonstrated. So I really can't be sure that anything you say about QFT is right, because you aren't self-correcting: if you were wrong, you wouldn't realize it. For the same reasons, I am not interested in taking up the subject of QFT with you.

Those reasons are in addition to the reasons I originally gave for limiting the scope of our discussion. I was only interested in establishing what the theory of QM says, as understood by most physicists. That is a matter of fact, not opinion, and it is a tractable topic (or so I thought) for our discussion. I said from the beginning we are unlikely to have a constructive discussion if we attempt to compete with the world's leading physicists in a debate about whether QM is ultimately correct, or whether alternative interpretations are superior to the common one. That is a debate I must cede to people much smarter and more knowledgeable than myself. But QM itself is a nonlocal theory--or at the very least, none of your (numerous and different) arguments have shown it is "wrong" to say so. That is all I really want to say.

Furthermore Legion was correct in the OP in the way he described Einstein's view of "spooky actions", Bell's theorem, and what Aspect's experiment implied about Einstein's argument. Whether all that is subsumed by theories beyond QM, such as QFT, is a separate matter, but Legion certainly wasn't wrong as far as the OP goes.
 
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zaybu

Active Member
Within the theory of QM, that is precisely what it means. What "second scenario" are you referring to?

After countless number of posts, you are still lost. The second scenario, to which I have referred at least a dozen times, is the one with Alice and Bob not knowing they were measuring entangled particles. They find out after they compare their measurement. You are definitely clueless.


You have described a number of scenarios which do not tell us, one way or the other, whether action-at-a-distance occurs ... for example at one point you said "there is no singlet state",

Again you are totally clueless. In the second scenario, Alice and Bob not knowing they were measuring entangled particles, wouldn't know that their particles were in a singlet.


It's not obvious to me how QFT could account for the apparent non-locality of the experimental outcome of Alice and Bob's measurements.

I have never suggested that QFT will resolve this case. Get your facts straightened.



I cannot take your word for it on QFT.

You don't need to take my word for it. Get yourself a few books and study it, are you that incapacitated?


Actually what really damages your credibility is not that you said wrong things about QM (we all make errors) but that you won't admit it, even when clearly demonstrated.

What you have demonstrated is that you are clueless about our discussion, and I have to repeat over and over the same thing because you can't keep your facts straightened.

For the same reasons, I am not interested in taking up the subject of QFT with you.

Ignorance is bliss.

I was only interested in establishing what the theory of QM says, as understood by most physicists.

No, what you are presenting on this forum is your interpretation. Leave the other physicists alone as they have never voted for you to represent them.


But QM itself is a nonlocal theory--or at the very least, none of your (numerous and different) arguments have shown it is "wrong" to say so. That is all I really want to say.

You can repeat that a thousand times, it won't make it true. There's absolutely no proof of spooky action at a distance. It's based on a misconception that the wave function, a solution to the Schroedinger equation, is real. It's isn't. It's a vector in an infinite dimensional Hilbert space. In QFT, that equation is replaced by the Klein-Gordon equation for scalar fields, the Dirac equation for spinnor fields, and the wavefunction becomes a field operator acting on the vacuum state, which are now part of a different space called Fock space. Your whole interpretation would fall apart as soon you would study QFT. Moreover in QFT in curved spacetime, it is even more drastic: the states are no longer unique, there are analogous to a coodinate system. How real can your wavefunction be?
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
That's the second time you've said that and I still don't know what you mean. Why not? We can easily see the quantum effects behind the original interferometer experiment even though there's nothing odd going on there in terms of wavefunctions collapsing or what have you.

I'm sure that you have come across numerous times (even if you don't recall, but I suspect you do) the name "Gisin", and his significance when it comes to things like "spooky actions" (nonlocality from Einstein through Bell, Wheeler, Everett, etc., to the present day) is something you can appreciate. That is, in the list of thousands of physicists who deal with quantum mechanics, there are a few that stand out, and Gisin (like Aspect) is one of them. So I'll quote him here (emphases added):

"Basically the solution proposed by the many-worlds view of quantum physics, also called the multiverse, is to deny that experiments have unique outcomes (for a long list of various versions of the many-world view see Kent 2010). According to this view, everything is quantum, once and for ever. Hence, the entire reasoning of Sect. 3.2 collapses: there are no inputs and no outputs! Actually, the motivation for many-worlds is not nonlocality, but the fact that today&#8217;s quantum theory offers no answer as to when a quantum measurement is finished. Hence, they conclude: quantum measurements are never finished, everything gets into an enormously complex state of superposition. Somehow, the only real thing is the Hilbert space and the linearity of Schrödinger&#8217;s equation."
from "Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space&#8211;Time? Nonlocality, Free Will and &#8220;No Many-Worlds" in Is Science Compatible with Free Will? Exploring Free Will and Consciousness in the Light of Quantum Physics and Neuroscience (Springer, 2013).

This is why, in the volume on the subject of multiverse, Bernard Carr admits that it is comparable (and has been compared) to religious faith; that many physicists don't consider multiverse theories to be science. saying "it's all superposition and Hilbert space" is great, and can look great on paper, but doesn't do much when "quantum measurements are never finished". As every experiment requires a measurement, this effectively renders every experiment useless.

Because while it is all very good to say that there is the one wavefunction that is the universe, we do not use one wavefunction. We don't characterize quantum systems as being in a state according to universal principles which can be maintained regardless of observers/observables (whether Hermitian operators or an early 20th century detection screen). We don't have function that can describe the quantum systems physicists deal with that allows this universal wavefunction to do anything at all. Every experiment requires particular specifications and transcriptions using established procedures such that the quantum system "out there" in Hilbert spaces need have anything to do with any part of the experiment until we actually wish to observe/measure anything whatsoever.

We have plenty of experiments in which a single "particle" is detected as being in two states. We are capable of detecting these states through observations (a combination of mathematical and technological tool). If any observer cannot observe "collapse" (that is, the quantum processes do not, upon observation, yield "classical"-like results) because that observer is somehow in a superposition state, than how is it that a superposition state is observed?

Also, the fact that you've asserted this seems to imply you've worked through the implications of superpositionable observers and know they disagree with what we actually see.

Far more basic. If we are capable of observing superpositions, then its because quantum systems are capable of being in superposition states that decohere in this universe. To explain constant quantum coherence is elegant mathematically but so far is so useless empirically that many physicists do not regard it as science.


Which is it - do we know superpositioned observers are wrong, or not?
We observe/measure quantum systems in ways that can be explained in terms of these systems existing in states refer to by terms such as superpositions, entanglement, etc. These are terms we apply to the systems. Every experiment deals with a uniquely transcribed and prepared quantum system and thus a unique "wave function", and which obeys the "laws" of quantum mechanics in that we are capable of using a description of this system combined with measurement and mathematical operations to probabilistically describe the outcome of the experiment.

The "observers" are not "superpositioned", and thus cannot be wrong or right or anything else.

I'm not following how a model which includes (predictions of) observations made by the experimenters means that experiments don't demonstrate anything at all.

Because the model doesn't include "predictions". Depending upon one's experimental set-up, although certain things change we still end up with much of the same: the predicted results are partly a matter of characterizations of the quantum system in Hilbert space, and partly a matter of other formalisms. No quantum system which is said to contain all the information within e.g., the Schrödinger wavefunction is useable in any experiment without operators that relate the mathematically described system to the measurements/observations. These are not included in the mathematical description of the system, and thus without them we cannot ever know anything about the system. We cannot measure anything, because "observables" require operators that are distinct from the quantum system and any and all states of any and all quantum systems. Any physical interaction (observation/measurement) is useless as we have no way to relate it to the formal description of the quantum system. We cannot say anything about any states, results, measurements, etc., because the method we use to do this is independent of the formal description of the system that exists in Hilbert space.

So, what, QM describes arbitarary subsets of the universe, but not the universe as a whole? :shrug:

Assuming for the sake of argument that QM alone is capable of describing (without any further developments within physics) all physical processes, then it can describe the universe as a whole. However, it doesn't do this through some universal wavefunction. Classical physics was believed to be capable of describing the universe through equations that dealt with things such as force, mass, velocity, etc. However, every system had particular values for these. The same is true in QM. The way in which a quantum system is characterized is not universal and it is not encapsulated in the wavefunction in any useable way.
 
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PolyHedral,

Did we resolve the issues we were discussing about faster-than-light travel? I don't believe you responded to my post #402. What triggered the discussion about shadows was my point that, strictly speaking, special relativity doesn't prohibit anything from traveling faster than light, it only prohibits causal influences (such as a force, matter, energy, information) from traveling faster than light. The shadow is supposed to be an especially simple example of this, but there are plenty of other examples too (such as the phase or group velocity of waves) and their superluminal behavior is an uncontroversial fact, and it is also uncontroversial that this does not conflict with SR. SR prohibits causal influences from traveling faster-than-light because they would lead to outright violations of causality (of the "going back in time and killing your grandfather" variety). QM's instantaneous collapse of the wavefunction, or the faster-than-light influence of one measurement on another, does not lead to such violations and it is therefore not in contradiction with SR. (Or, for those on this thread who do not accept nonlocality, let's just say it would not hypothetically be in contradiction with SR.)
 
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idav

Being
Premium Member
I'm sure that you have come across numerous times (even if you don't recall, but I suspect you do) the name "Gisin", and his significance when it comes to things like "spooky actions" (nonlocality from Einstein through Bell, Wheeler, Everett, etc., to the present day) is something you can appreciate. That is, in the list of thousands of physicists who deal with quantum mechanics, there are a few that stand out, and Gisin (like Aspect) is one of them. So I'll quote him here (emphases added):

"Basically the solution proposed by the many-worlds view of quantum physics, also called the multiverse, is to deny that experiments have unique outcomes (for a long list of various versions of the many-world view see Kent 2010). According to this view, everything is quantum, once and for ever. Hence, the entire reasoning of Sect. 3.2 collapses: there are no inputs and no outputs! Actually, the motivation for many-worlds is not nonlocality, but the fact that today’s quantum theory offers no answer as to when a quantum measurement is finished. Hence, they conclude: quantum measurements are never finished, everything gets into an enormously complex state of superposition. Somehow, the only real thing is the Hilbert space and the linearity of Schrödinger’s equation."
from "Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space–Time? Nonlocality, Free Will and “No Many-Worlds" in Is Science Compatible with Free Will? Exploring Free Will and Consciousness in the Light of Quantum Physics and Neuroscience (Springer, 2013).

This is why, in the volume on the subject of multiverse, Bernard Carr admits that it is comparable (and has been compared) to religious faith; that many physicists don't consider multiverse theories to be science. saying "it's all superposition and Hilbert space" is great, and can look great on paper, but doesn't do much when "quantum measurements are never finished". As every experiment requires a measurement, this effectively renders every experiment useless.

Because while it is all very good to say that there is the one wavefunction that is the universe, we do not use one wavefunction. We don't characterize quantum systems as being in a state according to universal principles which can be maintained regardless of observers/observables (whether Hermitian operators or an early 20th century detection screen). We don't have function that can describe the quantum systems physicists deal with that allows this universal wavefunction to do anything at all. Every experiment requires particular specifications and transcriptions using established procedures such that the quantum system "out there" in Hilbert spaces need have anything to do with any part of the experiment until we actually wish to observe/measure anything whatsoever.

We have plenty of experiments in which a single "particle" is detected as being in two states. We are capable of detecting these states through observations (a combination of mathematical and technological tool). If any observer cannot observe "collapse" (that is, the quantum processes do not, upon observation, yield "classical"-like results) because that observer is somehow in a superposition state, than how is it that a superposition state is observed?



Far more basic. If we are capable of observing superpositions, then its because quantum systems are capable of being in superposition states that decohere in this universe. To explain constant quantum coherence is elegant mathematically but so far is so useless empirically that many physicists do not regard it as science.



We observe/measure quantum systems in ways that can be explained in terms of these systems existing in states refer to by terms such as superpositions, entanglement, etc. These are terms we apply to the systems. Every experiment deals with a uniquely transcribed and prepared quantum system and thus a unique "wave function", and which obeys the "laws" of quantum mechanics in that we are capable of using a description of this system combined with measurement and mathematical operations to probabilistically describe the outcome of the experiment.

The "observers" are not "superpositioned", and thus cannot be wrong or right or anything else.



Because the model doesn't include "predictions". Depending upon one's experimental set-up, although certain things change we still end up with much of the same: the predicted results are partly a matter of characterizations of the quantum system in Hilbert space, and partly a matter of other formalisms. No quantum system which is said to contain all the information within e.g., the Schrödinger wavefunction is useable in any experiment without operators that relate the mathematically described system to the measurements/observations. These are not included in the mathematical description of the system, and thus without them we cannot ever know anything about the system. We cannot measure anything, because "observables" require operators that are distinct from the quantum system and any and all states of any and all quantum systems. Any physical interaction (observation/measurement) is useless as we have no way to relate it to the formal description of the quantum system. We cannot say anything about any states, results, measurements, etc., because the method we use to do this is independent of the formal description of the system that exists in Hilbert space.



Assuming for the sake of argument that QM alone is capable of describing (without any further developments within physics) all physical processes, then it can describe the universe as a whole. However, it doesn't do this through some universal wavefunction. Classical physics was believed to be capable of describing the universe through equations that dealt with things such as force, mass, velocity, etc. However, every system had particular values for these. The same is true in QM. The way in which a quantum system is characterized is not universal and it is not encapsulated in the wavefunction in any useable way.

It is math for predicting outcomes. The universe is a chain of events thats analogous to a tsunami wave crashing through and trying to oredict each molecule would be no easy path.

What I like about mw thoery is it takes into consideration the dual effects that occur at the quantum level. I agree with the objection in that the particle only takes, one path.

In the beginning there may have been potential for different events but it took one path. Particles may be able to do spooky things locally but they arent defying physics.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
It is math for predicting outcomes.

Let's say that it is. What does that entail? QM is used describe physical systems (like electrons and protons) so that we can perform experiments and say something about the subatomic world.

The math you describe as "predicting outcomes" is called a physical system. It is the electrons and photons and quarks and leptons and highfalutons (they haven't been detected yet, but highfalutons will explain everything from dark matter to grey matter and even constant Planks).

In the simplest case, the double-slit experiment (described using either photons or electrons; it doesn't matter), here's what your solution entails. We prepare a system that doesn't exist (because it is really the probability that we will get particular measurements given how we did stuff with very sophisticated machinery). We know something happens during the experiment and we know that imaging technology allows us to detect electrons hitting a screen or passing through a slit or any number of ways we can measure/observe something. But we have no ability to describe this something. That is, the only thing we can say about the "something" that we measured is how likely we would get the measurement results we did. We can't say what we measured, because when we described the physical system we didn't relate it to anything physical in a way that allows this.

All we can say is that whatever physical processes occurred, we don't know what they involve, are, might be, etc., other than that given x set-up, we have particular probabilities for y observation/measurement.


The universe is a chain of events thats analogous to a tsunami wave crashing through and trying to oredict each molecule would be no easy path.

It's nothing like that. At all. Because in a water wave, predicting how each molecule will end up is hard because there are a lot of molecules. We aren't dealing with a lot of molecules. We're dealing with single electrons.

What I like about mw thoery is it takes into consideration the dual effects that occur at the quantum level. I agree with the objection in that the particle only takes, one path.

Your theory has nothing to do with quantum physics. You are relating waves which have lots and lots of constituent parts that make them difficult to describe in terms of these parts to systems in which there are no parts. There is just the one thing, the one electron, and we can detect it in ways that make it something that seems like it is more than one electron or is spread out or can predict whether you will measure it in a given way. But all of that, every possible outcome, is not like a whatever wave with lots of molecules. It is one electron.

In the beginning there may have been potential for different events but it took one path.

Then we can't explain the results. We're talking about an experiment that is over a 100 years old, and the most brilliant physicists of the 20th century and some of the most brilliant minds that ever were tried to deal with how one thing can be in two places at once (and similar seeming paradoxes). Do you really believe that they all just missed something so basic as "there may have been potential" but "it took one path"? If we describe the physical system as taking one path independent of how we might observe it, we cannot account for what we observe. It's that simple. You can argue (as Einstein did) that QM is incomplete, you can argue that we should ignore what these quantum thingies are, and any number of things. But arguing that it took one path, and this must be true, is nothing more than an act of faith against all evidence we've accumulated over the last century.

Particles may be able to do spooky things locally but they arent defying physics.

That's because physics changed to describe particles as not being particles anymore. The reason we have before QM, there was no "classical physics". There was physics. Quantum physics changed all of that, because physics could not (and cannot) account for the empirical evidence. An entirely new framework in which locality, causation, and classical logic all do not in some sense exist (depending upon how one construes the results, they might reject aspects of locality and causation to keep classical logic, or keep classical logic but reject aspects of causation and locality, or reject all three, or declare physics incomplete).
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
I'm sure that you have come across numerous times (even if you don't recall, but I suspect you do) the name "Gisin", and his significance when it comes to things like "spooky actions" (nonlocality from Einstein through Bell, Wheeler, Everett, etc., to the present day) is something you can appreciate. That is, in the list of thousands of physicists who deal with quantum mechanics, there are a few that stand out, and Gisin (like Aspect) is one of them. So I'll quote him here (emphases added):

[...]

This is why...
Is your quote supposed to imply something on its own? Because as far as I can tell, it's merely explaining the position I'm arguing - Gisin hasn't commented on its viability in that section.

This is why, in the volume on the subject of multiverse, Bernard Carr admits that it is comparable (and has been compared) to religious faith; that many physicists don't consider multiverse theories to be science. saying "it's all superposition and Hilbert space" is great, and can look great on paper, but doesn't do much when "quantum measurements are never finished". As every experiment requires a measurement, this effectively renders every experiment useless.
But no experiment is ever done by someone outside of the universe. Things still interact inside the gigantic wavefunction, so any beings inside that structure can see "measurements" happen - every sense is a measuring tool, after all! They're just not measurements in the sense that they do not collapse the wave.

Because while it is all very good to say that there is the one wavefunction that is the universe, we do not use one wavefunction. We don't characterize quantum systems as being in a state according to universal principles which can be maintained regardless of observers/observables (whether Hermitian operators or an early 20th century detection screen).We don't have function that can describe the quantum systems physicists deal with that allows this universal wavefunction to do anything at all.
So because we stick in kludges to make the calculations easier, that means the full-blown non-kludged theory is wrong somehow?

Every experiment requires particular specifications and transcriptions using established procedures such that the quantum system "out there" in Hilbert spaces need have anything to do with any part of the experiment until we actually wish to observe/measure anything whatsoever.
We still observe things in the everything's-a-WF model, it just shows up differently. The answer is now not "The wave collapses when you open the box and the cat is definitely alive or dead," it's, "The cat is both alive and dead, and your brain just got entangled with it."

We have plenty of experiments in which a single "particle" is detected as being in two states.
Measurements only return single answers.

We are capable of detecting these states through observations (a combination of mathematical and technological tool).
Doing lots of observations and then working backwards and realizing that the particle had to be in two states at once isn't the same thing as detecting it in two states at once.

If any observer cannot observe "collapse" (that is, the quantum processes do not, upon observation, yield "classical"-like results) because that observer is somehow in a superposition state, than how is it that a superposition state is observed?
The observer does observe classical-esque results because the observer is superpositioned. Once that superposition happens, the branches evolve indepdently, and because they [usually] don't interact with one another, nobody ever observes themselves to be in a superposition, even thoguh they are. (Although they can calculate backwards and conclude that they were.)

We observe/measure quantum systems in ways that can be explained in terms of these systems existing in states refer to by terms such as superpositions, entanglement, etc. These are terms we apply to the systems.
And minds are, magically, not systems built of quantum objects?

The "observers" are not "superpositioned", and thus cannot be wrong or right or anything else.
That's only a consequence of treating observers as independent things that cannot be modelled. Ontologically, that's wrong.

Assuming for the sake of argument that QM alone is capable of describing (without any further developments within physics) all physical processes, then it can describe the universe as a whole. However, it doesn't do this through some universal wavefunction.
:help:
There are only wavefunctions and observable operators in QM. Since there are no magically external observers to use the operators, what else could possibly describe the universe except one big WF?

Classical physics was believed to be capable of describing the universe through equations that dealt with things such as force, mass, velocity, etc. However, every system had particular values for these.
Because every system was part of the universe. That was the point of Laplace's clockwork - every single object within the universe had these parameters, so if you could somehow know all of them, you could predict the future precisely. You're trying to argue that this principle of parameters and prediction doesn't apply to a quantum universe, that if I somehow knew the wavefunctions describing every particle and field within the universe simultaneously, I would still not be able to calculate the state distribution in the future.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
PolyHedral,

Did we resolve the issues we were discussing about faster-than-light travel? I don't believe you responded to my post #402. What triggered the discussion about shadows was my point that, strictly speaking, special relativity doesn't prohibit anything from traveling faster than light, it only prohibits causal influences (such as a force, matter, energy, information) from traveling faster than light. The shadow is supposed to be an especially simple example of this, but there are plenty of other examples too (such as the phase or group velocity of waves) and their superluminal behavior is an uncontroversial fact, and it is also uncontroversial that this does not conflict with SR. SR prohibits causal influences from traveling faster-than-light because they would lead to outright violations of causality (of the "going back in time and killing your grandfather" variety). QM's instantaneous collapse of the wavefunction, or the faster-than-light influence of one measurement on another, does not lead to such violations and it is therefore not in contradiction with SR. (Or, for those on this thread who do not accept nonlocality, let's just say it would not hypothetically be in contradiction with SR.)
I tried to do the math, because I still think you're wrong, but then I got confused. :cover: (I'm trying it again :p )
 
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idav

Being
Premium Member
Let's say that it is. What does that entail? QM is used describe physical systems (like electrons and protons) so that we can perform experiments and say something about the subatomic world.
OK
The math you describe as "predicting outcomes" is called a physical system. It is the electrons and photons and quarks and leptons and highfalutons (they haven't been detected yet, but highfalutons will explain everything from dark matter to grey matter and even constant Planks).
Yes, OK.
In the simplest case, the double-slit experiment (described using either photons or electrons; it doesn't matter), here's what your solution entails. We prepare a system that doesn't exist (because it is really the probability that we will get particular measurements given how we did stuff with very sophisticated machinery). We know something happens during the experiment and we know that imaging technology allows us to detect electrons hitting a screen or passing through a slit or any number of ways we can measure/observe something. But we have no ability to describe this something. That is, the only thing we can say about the "something" that we measured is how likely we would get the measurement results we did. We can't say what we measured, because when we described the physical system we didn't relate it to anything physical in a way that allows this.
Yes probability OK. Note that more information like knowing where the particle is and its spin will give the trajectory and outcome. Unfortunately measuring has been shown to be problematic.

All we can say is that whatever physical processes occurred, we don't know what they involve, are, might be, etc., other than that given x set-up, we have particular probabilities for y observation/measurement.
No doubt.




It's nothing like that. At all. Because in a water wave, predicting how each molecule will end up is hard because there are a lot of molecules. We aren't dealing with a lot of molecules. We're dealing with single electrons.
I know and it doesn't matter to the point. The single electron is interfering with itself as if there were 2 or more ghost electrons moving along with it.

Your theory has nothing to do with quantum physics. You are relating waves which have lots and lots of constituent parts that make them difficult to describe in terms of these parts to systems in which there are no parts. There is just the one thing, the one electron, and we can detect it in ways that make it something that seems like it is more than one electron or is spread out or can predict whether you will measure it in a given way. But all of that, every possible outcome, is not like a whatever wave with lots of molecules. It is one electron.

A wave just describes a single system. could be anything but the really are all subsystems of what is happening as a whole.


Then we can't explain the results. We're talking about an experiment that is over a 100 years old, and the most brilliant physicists of the 20th century and some of the most brilliant minds that ever were tried to deal with how one thing can be in two places at once (and similar seeming paradoxes). Do you really believe that they all just missed something so basic as "there may have been potential" but "it took one path"? If we describe the physical system as taking one path independent of how we might observe it, we cannot account for what we observe. It's that simple. You can argue (as Einstein did) that QM is incomplete, you can argue that we should ignore what these quantum thingies are, and any number of things. But arguing that it took one path, and this must be true, is nothing more than an act of faith against all evidence we've accumulated over the last century.

The evidence shows it takes one path because that is the results of the experiment. Just like that persons objection to multiworld theory. We can see with our own eyes a path is taken.
That's because physics changed to describe particles as not being particles anymore. The reason we have before QM, there was no "classical physics". There was physics. Quantum physics changed all of that, because physics could not (and cannot) account for the empirical evidence. An entirely new framework in which locality, causation, and classical logic all do not in some sense exist (depending upon how one construes the results, they might reject aspects of locality and causation to keep classical logic, or keep classical logic but reject aspects of causation and locality, or reject all three, or declare physics incomplete).

This is where a lot of disagreement stems. It is indeed an actual particle. Like zaybu is saying, you guys are acting as if the wave is real to the point that particles are just frequencies. This is where spooky gets mystical. The particle exists since it hits the screen, this is what experiments produce. Do you think matter just exists as a frequency just cause you need it to find say a higgs boson. What is important is that higgs boson exists there as an actual thing and isn't just popping into existence. The way matter works is with subatomic particles that exist.
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Is your quote supposed to imply something on its own? Because as far as I can tell, it's merely explaining the position I'm arguing - Gisin hasn't commented on its viability in that section.

If experiments can't ever be finished, then how can they be done?

But no experiment is ever done by someone outside of the universe.
Every experiment entails a split history. Gisin explains why he is so "dismissive with this view" for this reason: empirical methods applied to build useful models (i.e., we can predict the behavior of systems using the model) in physics as with all sciences and the fact that the many-worlds view has none: "I do not see any explanatory power in the many worlds view: it seems to be made just to prevent one from asking (possibly provocative) questions. Moreover, it has built into it the impossibility of any test: all its predictions are identical to those of quantum theory. For me, it looks like a &#8220;cushion for laziness&#8221; (un coussin de paresse in French)."

Basically, the many-worlds explanations take the results of the assumption that similar systems prepared in this universe don't cause the splitting and therefore can be used to develop the formalisms we require in every single experiment, but throw out the assumption while leaving the results. Yet as there is no meaning to the results, all the many-worlds theories have accomplished is to take a developed model, remove how it was developed and therefore any validity to it, but treat it as if it were independently validated even though it is not, while at the same time providing nothing to offer except a convenient way of avoiding dealing with a measurement process that is difficult to explain. The formalisms were developed under the assumption that this splitting didn't occur. Imagine trying to determine the probability of obtaining an ace from a deck of cards when you don't know how decks of cards work; after repeatedly drawing from the deck and shuffling, you can reconstruct the number of suits and types of cards, all under the assumption that you are working with the same deck. That's how we obtained the quantum formalisms we use: assuming that when we pick from the deck (observe), we haven't created two new decks, and only one of which we can observe such that we can know nothing about the result of the draws from the other deck. The many-worlds theories takes the statistically developed formalisms which require the non-splitting, use these formalism but claim the splitting occurs, yet offer no reason for the formalism or evidence that the splitting occurs. The theories just avoid having to answer the measurement problem by saying there is no measurement and then refusing to offer any explanation for why the formalisms work or how the theory explains anything.


Things still interact inside the gigantic wavefunction, so any beings inside that structure can see "measurements" happen

Then there is no reason for the giant wavefunction. It's completely irrelevant and superfluous.

They're just not measurements in the sense that they do not collapse the wave.

They aren't measurements of anything. That's the point.
Hence, they conclude: quantum measurements are never finished, everything gets into an enormously complex state of superposition.

We don't measure, we just split universes and pretend that somehow we can relate the system transcribed to observables obtained under the assumption that the system doesn't split to talk about the states of systems we never actually really measured. And as for he "collapse" language- while is still around, it is largely replaced by coherence and decoherence, because the idealized isolation of early QM isn't held onto anymore.

So because we stick in kludges to make the calculations easier, that means the full-blown non-kludged theory is wrong somehow?

It doesn't make any calculations easier. It steals the calculations, erases how they were obtained, renders useless measurements in any way apart from vague notions of ongoing measurements which provide a very clear reason why measurements of a single system can result in system states that seem to describe different systems, but offer no predictive power and cannot explain how the observables were obtained to begin with (as this mathematical procedure assumes that similar systems can be statistically related because they do not split).

We still observe things in the everything's-a-WF model, it just shows up differently. The answer is now not "The wave collapses when you open the box and the cat is definitely alive or dead," it's, "The cat is both alive and dead, and your brain just got entangled with it."

That's the many-minds interpretation. It's the "observation creates reality" view of QM. And like the many-worlds interpretation, all it does is explain a measurement/observation without evidence and by removing what allows us to experiment at all.

Measurements only return single answers.

We can perform multiple measurements at the same time, and as "answers" can have multiple values, even if the above were true it wouldn't matter.

Doing lots of observations and then working backwards and realizing that the particle had to be in two states at once isn't the same thing as detecting it in two states at once.
Good thing we don't do that.

The observer does observe classical-esque results because the observer is superpositioned.
The -esque part shouldn't be there. There's no reason for it.

Once that superposition happens, the branches evolve indepdently
And thus we have no reason to assume that the methods we developed to relate measurements to anything at all in terms of quantum systems (which, again, assumed no splitting) should be used. We've been handed 52 cards, performed continued experiments with drawing and shuffling from the deck until we know what the deck is composed of (4 suits of every number and the face cards), and then pretended that every time we drew from the deck it was a different deck. Which means we have 0 reason for thinking that their are 13 of each suit, or 4 suits for each number up to 10, or any face cards, because we're now claiming we've been drawing from a different deck each time.


And minds are, magically, not systems built of quantum objects?

They are. Which would mean that your neurons are constantly splitting and again leaves us with nothing usable.

That's only a consequence of treating observers as independent things that cannot be modelled. Ontologically, that's wrong.

It's a consequence of developing formalisms which assume that observations cause micro-level processes to decohere. It presents a difficult problem when it comes to explaining how these processes decohere, but the "hey, what if we pretend we aren't measuring anything!" approach is great until we need measurements.


There are only wavefunctions and observable operators in QM. Since there are no magically external observers to use the operators, what else could possibly describe the universe except one big WF?

The observable operators were statistically developed under an assumption that similar systems were the same. In other words, even if we aren't dealing with the same deck of cards, every deck that we deal with has the same type of cards. Many-world interpretations throw that out, making observable operators useless.

Because every system was part of the universe. That was the point of Laplace's clockwork - every single object within the universe had these parameters, so if you could somehow know all of them, you could predict the future precisely.
It has little at all to do with every system being part of the universe and everything to do with deterministic mechanics. Nobody thought about multiple universes such that saying a system was a part of the universe meant anything.

Also, I'm not sure where you are getting the clockwork from: "Une intelligence qui, pour un instant donné , connaîtrait toutes les forces dont la nature est animée, et la situation respective des êtres qui la composent, si d'ailleurs elle était assez vaste pour soumettre ces données à l'analyse , embrasserait dans la même formule les mouvemens des plus grands corps de l'imivers et ceux du plus léger atome : rien ne serait incertain pour elle, et l'a venir comme le passé , serait présent à ses yeux." Une Intelligence somehow became "demon" (Maxwellian influence?), but clockwork? That I've not heard of and it sounds more like Newton.

You're trying to argue that this principle of parameters and prediction doesn't apply to a quantum universe
No, I'm waiting for you to give me something that makes this at all useful, because we don't use any universal wavefunction. All you've provided is a way to equate the universe to quantum physics without any evidence or without any ability to be used. It's a universal wavefunction that we not only can't use, but is superfluous because we do need specific wave functions for quantum systems.
 
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I tried to do the math, because I still think you're wrong, but then I got confused. :cover: (I'm trying it again :p )
I think it would be more straightforward if you point out which step in my math you are having trouble with. That seemed to work for Reptillian.
 

PolyHedral

Superabacus Mystic
I think it would be more straightforward if you point out which step in my math you are having trouble with. That seemed to work for Reptillian.
Your math is correct, but your conclusion is false - just because one can see a shadow moving faster than light doesn't mean it actually is from the perspective of someone standing on top of it.
 

zaybu

Active Member
Originally Posted by Mr Spinkles
PolyHedral,

Did we resolve the issues we were discussing about faster-than-light travel? I don't believe you responded to my post #402. What triggered the discussion about shadows was my point that, strictly speaking, special relativity doesn't prohibit anything from traveling faster than light, it only prohibits causal influences (such as a force, matter, energy, information) from traveling faster than light. The shadow is supposed to be an especially simple example of this, but there are plenty of other examples too (such as the phase or group velocity of waves) and their superluminal behavior is an uncontroversial fact, and it is also uncontroversial that this does not conflict with SR. SR prohibits causal influences from traveling faster-than-light because they would lead to outright violations of causality (of the "going back in time and killing your grandfather" variety). QM's instantaneous collapse of the wavefunction, or the faster-than-light influence of one measurement on another, does not lead to such violations and it is therefore not in contradiction with SR. (Or, for those on this thread who do not accept nonlocality, let's just say it would not hypothetically be in contradiction with SR.)

I tried to do the math, because I still think you're wrong, but then I got confused. :cover: (I'm trying it again :p )

Spinkles' spooky action (instantaneous collapse of the wavefunction) isn't real. So it doesn't have to obey SR. :D
 
Your math is correct, but your conclusion is false - just because one can see a shadow moving faster than light doesn't mean it actually is from the perspective of someone standing on top of it.
That is not my conclusion. I do not conclude that something can travel faster than light in all reference frames. I only conclude that faster-than-light travel is not forbidden by SR, in certain limited cases (I have already described what those limitations are). To prove that conclusion, I only need to show the shadow travels faster-than-light in at least one reference frame, which I have done. Whatever happens in other reference frames does not affect my conclusion.
 

idav

Being
Premium Member
But the shadow doesn't travel faster than light.:biglaugh:

The shadow being the representation of where the light is, it is the representation that moves that quick but really there isn't anything moving. It's an illusion. All this spooky stuff is illusory, not what it seems.
 
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