Doubtful, Persian Emperor Cyrus (580 - 529 BC) lived well over one hundred years later. Yet The Book of Isaiah in Chapters 44 and 45 speaks of Cyrus . . ..
Yes.This is called prophecy.
" it is widely accepted that Isaiah the prophet did not write the book,"
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EtuMalku
Isaiah did write the book.Here is some information on this.
"Unity of Writership. Certain Bible critics in modern times have contended that the book of Isaiah was not all written by Isaiah. Some claim that chapters 40 through 66 were written by an unidentified person who lived about the time of the end of the Jews’ Babylonian exile. Other critics pare off additional portions of the book, theorizing that someone other than Isaiah must have written them. But the Bible itself does not agree with these contentions.
Inspired writers of the Christian Greek Scriptures credited both the material now designated chapters 1 to 39 and chapters 40 to 66 to “Isaiah the prophet.”
They never intimated that there were two persons who bore this name or that the name of the writer of part of the book was unknown. (For examples compare Mt 3:3 and 4:14-16 with Isa 40:3 and 9:1, 2; also Joh 12:38-41 with Isa 53:1 and 6:1, 10.)
In addition to this, there are numerous other places where the Christian Greek Scripture writers specifically credit material quoted from the latter part of the book of Isaiah, not to an unidentified writer, but to “Isaiah the prophet.” (Compare Mt 12:17-21 with Isa 42:1-4; Ro 10:16 with Isa 53:1.) Jesus Christ himself, when he read from “the scroll of the prophet Isaiah” at the synagogue in Nazareth, was reading from Isaiah 61:1, 2.—Lu 4:17-19.
Furthermore, the Dead Sea Scroll of Isaiah (IQIsa, believed to have been copied toward the end of the second century B.C.E.)
contains evidence that the copyist who penned it knew nothing of any supposed division in the prophecy at the close of chapter 39. He began the 40th chapter on the last line of the column of writing that contains chapter 39.
The entire book of Isaiah has been passed down through the centuries as a single work, not as two or more. The continuity from chapter 39 to chapter 40 is evident in what is recorded at Isaiah 39:6, 7, which is an obvious transition to what follows."
WOL
"The Hebrew translation had the word helel in the place of Lucifer, or rather St. Jerome replaced the word helel with Lucifer. Helel means ‘shining one’."
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EtuMalku
Yes...this is what I said in my earlier comment.Lucifer is just the Latin translation that came after the original languages of Hebrew,Aramaic and Koine Greek.Hel el was the original word in the holy scriptures.Here is my post again from
post #33
Lucifer is just the Latin translation of what is merely a title meaning light bearer.It comes from the original word in Hebrew Hel el.The holy scriptures were written in Hebrew,Aramaic,and later Koine Greek.Never in Latin.The words roots are Hebrew.
Many confuse the holy scriptures that were written first, with the bible.The holy scriptures were written in Hebrew,Aramaic and Greek.What Jerome did was translate a revised version of the old Latin from the Hebrew script, instead of the Septuagint, into Latin, 300+ years after the last of the holy scriptures written by the disciples,around 98 C.E.