For Jews or Christians: Why Shema means what a Jew says

[rosends]

In Greek language the word “another or other” has two meanings “heteros” and “allos”, can you tell the diff bet these 2 words?

Nope. I know Hebrew -- the language in which the Torah was presented.

 

[rosends]

”regardless of the context”? For the 20th times ahem, ahem, ahem!

Please read and understand: The text is referring to the mountains as many mountains like the Andes Mountains.

No, the text is referring to a single mountain

”regardless of the context”? For the 20th times ahem, ahem, ahem!

Please read and understand: The text is referring to the mountains as many mountains like the Andes Mountains.

It says "one of the mountains." That makes the mountain it refers to "one" and the rest, "of the mountains." This does not make the "one" any different from any other notion of "one" whether there were 2 other mountains or a million. The question is the meaning of "one" not the existence of anything else. You seem to lose sight of that. One of one and one of twenty are both "one."

 

[rosends]

Didn’t I say that? The word “only” as in “yachid” came from the word “one” as in “echad”. IOW, yachid derived from the word echad.

An only/yachid son of Abraham in contrast to “one/echad” of the mountains –Gen 22:2.

Not precisely. Yachid derived from "to be made one" through the word "yachad" which means "together." Yachad, in turn, derived from echad. Isaac is a specific one of the two sons of Abraham. Yachid must then mean "specific", right?

You might be thinking of "echud" meaning "unified". Same letters, different vowels.

 

[JM2C]

Why are you shirking the plain numerical meaning of "echad?" Did I not just tell you what is the first number a Hebrew child learns? Is this COMPOUND or not, sir?

Not only do you shirk the plain meaning of Shema, YHWH is "one," you shirk the pervasive and consistent CONTEXT of Shema, that there is NO OTHER ONE.

Shirking on TOP of shirking will not make a man behoovin' to be groovin', sir.

You and the other one should read and try to understand Genesis 22:2, Gen 2:24, Gen 3:22, and Dt 6:4. Again for the 100th time Ahem, Ahem X 100!!!!!! The word “YACHID/ONLY” as the Only son of Abraham, meaning no brothers, singular, an only son of Abraham. The word “ECHAD/ONE/UNIFIED” as the one UNIFIED MOUNTAINS/plural in the land of Moriah like the Andes Mountains.

 

[nothead]

So the bias of Jewish rabbis who record how Jews acted and what Jews believed makes more sense to me than the bias of a document which has factual errors and suggests changing what the rabbis and Jews believed. You want to use it? Fine. It just has nothing to do with Judaism. Good luck with that.

You say OT canon has no general errors, but NT does? Good luck with that.

 

[rosends]

That’s why God gave these two words, the “echad”, and the “yachid” so we can know God more accurately and not mislead by misinterpretations.

But those are two different words used in two different contexts. Why insist they both mean "one" just with different senses? English has 2 different words, 'one' and 'only'. They are used in different contexts because they mean different things. Why do you refuse to see that language works that way? There is a word for "two" in Hebrew, and a word for "pair." That doesn't mean that the use of "pair" excludes "two" or "two" excludes "pair."

 

[JM2C]

Throwing a wrench into the machinery only shows your penchant for finding a way out of truth, sir. See the light, see God is the Father only. The one sitting at the Right Hand of God cannot BE God. Two Gods in Heaven was NEVER the scenario sent in vision, revelation, or truth.

You got your opinions and I have verses to prove that the Lord Jesus is God.

Mt 22:44 “ ‘The Lord said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet.”

Ac 7:55 But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God

 

[nothead]

You and the other one should read and try to understand Genesis 22:2, Gen 2:24, Gen 3:22, and Dt 6:4. Again for the 100th time Ahem, Ahem X 100!!!!!! The word “YACHID/ONLY” as the Only son of Abraham, meaning no brothers, singular, an only son of Abraham. The word “ECHAD/ONE/UNIFIED” as the one UNIFIED MOUNTAINS/plural in the land of Moriah like the Andes Mountains.

ONLY was an ancient concept. God is one, ONLY. Jn 17 This is eternal life that they know YOU the ONLY True God, and [also] Jesus Christ (me) whom YOU sent. Ton monon alEthinon theos. And ONLY is the pervasive CONTEXT of Shema.

NO OTHER ONE. First Command of the Ten. You shall have NO OTHER elohim to my face. (As equal).
"I" "I" "I" am THE ONE who brought you out of Egypt.

 

[rosends]

You and the other one should read and try to understand Genesis 22:2, Gen 2:24, Gen 3:22, and Dt 6:4. Again for the 100th time Ahem, Ahem X 100!!!!!! The word “YACHID/ONLY” as the Only son of Abraham, meaning no brothers, singular, an only son of Abraham. The word “ECHAD/ONE/UNIFIED” as the one UNIFIED MOUNTAINS/plural in the land of Moriah like the Andes Mountains.

But he wasn;t the only son of Abraham. He was a unique son of Abraham, unlike his brother.

 

[nothead]

You got your opinions and I have verses to prove that the Lord Jesus is God.

Mt 22:44 “ ‘The Lord said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies under your feet.”

Ac 7:55 But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, looked up stedfastly into heaven, and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing on the right hand of God

Right Hand of God in EVERY historical context in EVERY monarchy known to man is subservient to the King of kings, sir.
John and James' mother asks this for Jesus. THEY were not being MADE GOD also, were they?

 

[JM2C]

But he wasn;t the only son of Abraham. He was a unique son of Abraham, unlike his brother.

That's why the word "yachid" was used instead of "Echad", wasn't it?

 

[JM2C]

Right Hand of God in EVERY historical context in EVERY monarchy known to man is subservient to the King of kings, sir.
John and James' mother asks this for Jesus. THEY were not being MADE GOD also, were they?

We went through with this in your other thread and I proved you wrong there. If you want to go through with this argument again, fine with me.

 

[nothead]

You and the other one should read and try to understand Genesis 22:2, Gen 2:24, Gen 3:22, and Dt 6:4. Again for the 100th time Ahem, Ahem X 100!!!!!! The word “YACHID/ONLY” as the Only son of Abraham, meaning no brothers, singular, an only son of Abraham. The word “ECHAD/ONE/UNIFIED” as the one UNIFIED MOUNTAINS/plural in the land of Moriah like the Andes Mountains.

NO OTHER BUT HE, said by the scribe, as every Jew under the sun understood...Mk 12. And Jesus DOTH NOT correct him or include himself into the mix...of your so-called GODHEAD.

 

[nothead]

We went through with this in your other thread and I proved you wrong there. If you want to go through with this argument again, fine with me.

Shew me. I thought youall gave up on that thread. NO EVIDENCE the "right hand of God" is equal IN ANY WAY to the throne-sitter.

Oh, I... looky here, no response by you, but one single one from another. Smooth move, ex-lax marketer.

 

[rosends]

That's why the word "yachid" was used instead of "Echad", wasn't it?

Because it didn't mean "one", yes. That's my point. The word "one" is used when it means "one" and "specific" is used" when the text means "specific."

 

[nothead]

That's why the word "yachid" was used instead of "Echad", wasn't it?

You are reaching so far out of bounds, your arms are out of socket. Flexi-man, was he a comic strip hero?

 

[nothead]

There are two words. On many situations, yachid means "unique", "alone" or "singular." The word is also never used in reference to locusts so they must also be like God.

You understand that you are talking about a Hebrew word which means "one" the way the English word "one" means "one", right? If I say "one person" then it doesn't matter that you can reword a sentence to include "one man from among the 7 billion humans on earth." The number is still "one." To claim that it is a "unified" one (which was your contention) and that this is different from some other form of one is like saying that the word "one" means something different from the word "single." They are simply different words. The text refers to one mountain so it uses the word "one." It refers to a single object regardless of its context. In Ex 14:28, the text relates that "to the one". You want to say that because the "one" is one of others, it is different from being "just one that there is nothing else like" and your proof is that there is a word meaning "singular" which isn't used for God. That's a bizarre conclusion to draw. The non-use of a word does not confer a trait, it just makes that word not part of the sentences which describe.

The problem here is twofold:
1. You have created this concept of "unified one" and decided that it is different from some other "one" which doesn't actually exist.
2. You apply this "unified one" to God by comparing him to other uses of the word "one" which are determined by "others in the group" (one from among other mountains).

There simply is no other word for "one" so the text uses the only word it has for "one".

Actually in English the concept of "compound" is more oft used, with the "compound one" a minority meaning...

Echad HARDLY EVER means this as the 7 out of 952 times by our scholar attests, about .OH EIGHT percent of the time. Strong's Lexicon.

The Koine HEN is the neuter declensioned "one" and means also frequently a "compound one." As opposed to the masculine, cardinal NUMBER "eis."

 

[JM2C]

Nope. I know Hebrew -- the language in which the Torah was presented.

I thought the original Hebrew text was translated in Greek, the LXX or the Septuagint.

 

[Desert Snake]

You say OT canon has no general errors, but NT does? Good luck with that.

The Christian ''OT'' is different from the Jewish canon in how it's interpreted. apples and oranges. We have different prophets, for example.

 

[metis]

I thought the original Hebrew text was translated in Greek, the LXX or the Septuagint.

Yes, and this was done for at least two reasons. One is that Hebrew was not spoken in casual circles as it was replaced by Aramaic and, two, the Septuagint was written by and for Jews in the diasporah since many of us had moved out of eretz Israel to other locations.