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Free Will

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
But if the future *can be known*, then it is determined: it is fixed.
Yes, it is fixed .. fixed by our choices, amongst other things.

Let's just leave it at you don't believe it is possible to know BY ANY MECHANISM what we will freely choose.
We are going round in circles.
You cannot understand the topic, imo. :)

OK. And if there is only one future, there is no real choice.
..so many people believe.
..but it is logically incorrect.
You cannot tell me the mechanism of how people are forced to "want"..
..you just state that it must be so.
..as you have told me previously, intuition is often wrong.

THERE IS ONLY ONE FUTURE.
If there was more than one, there would be millions of 'you' in the cosmos. :D
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Yes, it is fixed .. fixed by our choices, amongst other things.

Let's just leave it at you don't believe it is possible to know BY ANY MECHANISM what we will freely choose.
We are going round in circles.
You cannot understand the topic, imo. :)
Well, that is part of what it means to be a *free* choice: that it is impossible to know what that choice will be ahead of time.
..so many people believe.
..but it is logically incorrect.
You cannot tell me the mechanism of how people are forced to "want"..
..you just state that it must be so.
No, I am saying that *if* it is so, then the choice isn't free. And I see no evidence that it is not the case.
..as you have told me previously, intuition is often wrong.

True, but you haven't given me any reason to think I am wrong in this. The issue I am having has simply not been addressed and you seem to misunderstand my objection.

But it is quite simple:

1. *IF* you can know the future, then the future cannot be other than how it is known to be.

2. *IF* the future cannot be other than it will be, then the choice is not free because there is not more than one real option.

The first has to do with what it means to *know* the future (as opposed to suspecting or intuiting).

The second has to do with the fact that for a choice to be free, it cannot be forced.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
Well, that is part of what it means to be a *free* choice: that it is impossible to know what that choice will be ahead of time.
As far as human perception goes, that is correct.
That is because human perception sees time as a fixed entity, which cannot be violated.
We say that something that "will happen in the future" cannot be known until it happens.

..which is fine.
However, if an agent knows what will happen in the future due to that agent not being subject to time,
that does NOT interfere with our choices in the slightest.
It is a chicken and egg problem. Intuitively we think that the "known future" happens before the choice,
so that is what determines it .. but that intuition is incorrect, as it has not taken into account the mechanism of knowing.
i.e. the order in which the "cause" takes place is complex due to the mechanism of knowing

As far as the agent outside of our time experiences, events have "already happened" .. it is as if we are going through them in slow motion, but don't perceive .. something like that.

1. *IF* you can know the future, then the future cannot be other than how it is known to be.
Obviously..

2. *IF* the future cannot be other than it will be, then the choice is not free because there is not more than one real option.
Wrong. There is more than one option, and you will freely choose the one that is known.
If you were to have wanted to choose the other option, it would have been known,
because as far as the agent outside of time is concerned, it has already happened.

The second has to do with the fact that for a choice to be free, it cannot be forced.
It is not forced .. it just appears to be, as the human perception of time considers it impossible
to know something "before it happens".
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
As far as human perception goes, that is correct.
That is because human perception sees time as a fixed entity, which cannot be violated.
I disagree. Usual human perception sees time as a variable entity where the future can be changed.

Think of it like this. If I know that a certain city is at a certain latitude and longitude, then there is no choice that will make it in a different location.

Time (and space) cannot be 'violated' (strange word to use, but OK) if they can be known. The knowledge means that they are fixed. It isn't that the knowledge *makes* them fixed, but if there can be knowledge, then the events are fixed.
We say that something that "will happen in the future" cannot be known until it happens.
Well, even this is known to be wrong: I know that there will be a solar eclipse next year in April. But because it is known, no choice can make it otherwise.
..which is fine.
However, if an agent knows what will happen in the future due to that agent not being subject to time,
that does NOT interfere with our choices in the slightest.
How can it not? If we have choices: real choices with more than one possible future, then it would be *impossible* to say which future is actually going to happen.
It is a chicken and egg problem. Intuitively we think that the "known future" happens before the choice,
so that is what determines it .. but that intuition is incorrect, as it has not taken into account the mechanism of knowing.
i.e. the order in which the "cause" takes place is complex due to the mechanism of knowing
Causality always goes from past to future in the universe. So, no, we are NOT talking about this. If the future event can be known (even for an entity outside of time), then there can only be one future, which means the choice is not really free.

That, to me, seems absolutely clear. If something can be known to be the case, then it cannot be otherwise.
As far as the agent outside of our time experiences, events have "already happened" .. it is as if we are going through them in slow motion, but don't perceive .. something like that.
I am perfectly comfortable with saying the whole of space and time is a complete entity that can be known. But that would mean that no choices are free since only one possible future would be possible (the one that is known).
Obviously..


Wrong. There is more than one option, and you will freely choose the one that is known.
If you were to have wanted to choose the other option, it would have been known,
because as far as the agent outside of time is concerned, it has already happened.
To say 'already happened' is to imply time. For that entity, it would have 'just been the case'. And if it was 'just the case', then the choice was not free in the sense that it could not have been otherwise (since it is known what choice is made).
It is not forced .. it just appears to be, as the human perception of time considers it impossible
to know something "before it happens".

How about to know it 'independently of time' means it cannot be other than it is.

Anyway, we seem to be going in circles. I don't see how knowledge of a choice can be consistent with a free choice. You seem to insist it is possible, but merely make that claim.
 
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muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
I disagree. Usual human perception sees time as a variable entity where the future can be changed.
That doesn't really make sense.
For the future to "be changed", it has to be something in the first place. :)

Causality always goes from past to future in the universe. So, no, we are NOT talking about this. If the future event can be known (even for an entity outside of time), then there can only be one future, which means the choice is not really free.
You are so confused.
There can only be ONE future .. but we do not know what it is.
How can there be more than ONE future?

What you mean, is that there are theoretically many possibilities.
..but only EXACTLY ONE of these possibilities is what the future will be .. it is unknown .. hidden from us.

I am perfectly comfortable with saying the whole of space and time is a complete entity that can be known. But that would mean that no choices are free since only one possible future would be possible (the one that is known).
That is irrelevant, my friend. :)
You imply that it is "what is known" that fixes the future, and not our choices.
You cannot get your head around it .. you can't explain WHY .. you just state it as a fact.
..which it isn't.

To say 'already happened' is to imply time.
Exactly, and that is where the confusion lies.

Imagine an agent who creates a universe. A space-time continuum.
The agent sees time as if it is in a bottle .. sees time as we see space.
..so while we are experiencing time and making choices, the agent outside that environment sees all.

Anyway, we seem to be going in circles. I don't see how knowledge of a choice can be consistent with a free choice. You seem to insist it is possible, but merely make that claim.
I do not "merely" make a claim any more than you .. I explain in detail why my view is logically correct. :)
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
That doesn't really make sense.
For the future to "be changed", it has to be something in the first place. :)


You are so confused.
There can only be ONE future .. but we do not know what it is.
How can there be more than ONE future?

What you mean, is that there are theoretically many possibilities.
..but only EXACTLY ONE of these possibilities is what the future will be .. it is unknown .. hidden from us.
But the fact that there is only one means that there isn't a possibility of a different one.
That is irrelevant, my friend. :)
You imply that it is "what is known" that fixes the future, and not our choices.
No, I am claiming that *if* it can be known, then it is fixed and thereby not subject to choice.
You cannot get your head around it .. you can't explain WHY .. you just state it as a fact.
..which it isn't.
Because if it is *known*, then it cannot be other than what it is. And that impossibility means there is no free choice.
Exactly, and that is where the confusion lies.

Imagine an agent who creates a universe. A time-space continuum.
The agent sees time as if it is in a bottle .. sees time as we see space.
..so while we are experiencing time and making choices, the agent outside that environment sees all.
Yes, and thereby knows what we will decide because (as you say), it is 'already decided'.

Let me put it this way: if I *know* that you are at a particular location, is it *possible* you are somewhere else? No. It is not. Whatever makes it possible for me to have knowledge also excludes the possibility of your being elsewhere.

We are 'experiencing time and making choices' but those choices are already determined and so *cannot* be free. All we experience is thereby an illusion of free choice and not truly a free choice. The choice is limited to be what it actually is. If the end result can be 'seen', then it can be no other way.
I do not "merely" make a claim any more than you .. I explain in detail why my view is logically correct. :)
And it seems to me to ignore the basic fact that if knowledge is *possible*, then other options are excluded. And if there is only one option, then the choice is not free. It may *feel* free. It may *feel* like we are making free choices. But, in fact, we are not because we could not have chosen any way different than what we do.

If there is free choice, then the future cannot be fixed and so knowledge of it cannot be possible *even for an entity outside of time*. There would have to be more than one possible future and something we do determines which one is actually the case. But, if the future is known, then that cannot be the case.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
But the fact that there is only one means that there isn't a possibility of a different one.
..but that is not significant .. there is no possibility of the past being a different one either.
It is just a matter of perspective.
Our choices, amongst other things, make what we call the future.
THERE IS ONLY ONE FUTURE.
It is more about what fixes it, and not how many futures there are.

No, I am claiming that *if* it can be known, then it is fixed and thereby not subject to choice.
Fixed by what? Who fixes it, and why?
I notice you are ignoring this.
You are selective in your replies. I have asked many times now.

We are 'experiencing time and making choices' but those choices are already determined and so *cannot* be free.
No, no .. it is more complex.
They are not "already determined" as far as we are concerned.
You are still assuming that our choice is not free, because of temporal order.
..but temporal causation/order is not applicable.

What we experience is very real, but an agent that is outside of time can see all.
In any case, as I have said previously, forget the future being known, because as far as we are concerned, it isn't.
Hence our choices are real.
We are the ones responsible for driving a car safely, and no other. Free-will is real and no illusion.

All we experience is thereby an illusion of free choice and not truly a free choice.
Meaningless and not borne out by our experience of reality.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
I'm not so sure that the ability to do otherwise means that you have free will. I could have not typed this post but I'd rather exercise my will to post. I felt more free to post than to go against my will and not post. My desire to post outweighed my restraint of my desire to post.

There are times I've restrained my desire to do something. Sometimes I took great pains to restrain my desire to do something. In my mind I did otherwise.

im not so sure physics matters so much as what are my desires, capabilities and potentials at the time of deciding what my will will be. Sometimes I have no desires whatsoever and the choices I have don't affect my will whatsoever. In that case I'm free will not bound to any choice.

Can impedance and unimpedance of will be measured? There really are more definitions of free will than just one. Unimpeded will is a free will. I know very well when I exercise my will that it's my will I'm exercising and that's free will. Living in full accordance with one's will is a free will. Living in harmony with one's will is also free will. Contentment with one's will is a free will.
Right. You exercised your free will. That's all it is.
 

It Aint Necessarily So

Veteran Member
Premium Member
You say that the future is 'fixed' .. yes .. but it is our choices that fix it.
It does NOT mean our choices aren't free.
That's exactly what it means. Likewise, if our choices aren't free at the moment of decision, meaning that the self could have chosen otherwise, free will doesn't exist.
an agent cannot know what we will choose unless that agent determines it.
The agent doesn't need to determine the choice to determine what it will be if it is made deterministically.
I just see that you are basing your opinion on "a feeling", and not logic.
I think that's you. You "feel" that free will can be decided in advance. That's internally contradictory. This is one of the unfortunate burdens the Abrahamic theist is forced to bear. He NEEDS his deity to be omniscient meaning to know the future, and he NEEDS will to be free to justify damnation. Pick one, because they're mutually contradictory. But he can't pick just one. He must pick both, and so he must argue that will is both free and known in advance. Others have no trouble seeing the contradiction there, but the Abrahamic theist must defend it. How? By denying the obvious and simply insisting that something can happen because he needs it to.
There is not more than one future, no more than there is more than one past.
More feelings from you stated as facts.
You cannot tell me the mechanism of how people are forced to "want"
Irrelevant. You can't give the mechanism for how a deity creates a universe, but it doesn't seem to be a problem if it's YOUR beliefs that have no mechanism, just others.
if an agent knows what will happen in the future due to that agent not being subject to time
More incoherence. To know is to be in time, as is to exist.
Wrong. There is more than one option, and you will freely choose the one that is known.
You don't know that. That's the crux of this debate.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
Some are taught I would think, given that we can see how different cultures have evolved over time. But how many of these take their starting point in biological constrains, meaning that they arose outside our control as individuals?
I only know of values as being taught.
If you can give me one example of values being of biological origins, I would be interested in seeing that.

You asked if I would accept the supernatural, and this was an example of the supernatural and why I wouldn't accept it. If that is not what you meant with the question then I might have misunderstood what you meant.
I think you just went with what you thought, or heard.

Don't understand the questions and what it has to do with sin?
That's weird. Don't worry about it.

I don't think it is the same.

When scientists use the word "theory" it is well-defined, so everyone using it agrees on its meaning. When using the word sin, the meaning of the word might be agreed on, but what exactly is considered sinful and what is not, is not agreed upon, even amongst friends or family.
That's not true.
Sin is understood in the ways it is used, by those using the word.

I have read it, what is your point, did they have great knowledge about these things in your opinion? and if so where is that expressed in it?
I think there has been much said on this already.
It's okay if you don't agree.

There is a huge difference between performing these things and whether they truly understood what was going on. I would be the first to admit that ancient people weren't stupid, but doesn't change the fact that they were constrained due to a lack of technology and knowledge about things we know today.
Not true.
They did not have telescopes or a LHC, but they knew quite a lot about our celestial, and terrestrial world... and us.

That is an option as well, it doesn't, however, answer the question you asked me, because you asked me why the first human smoked and that person wouldn't have known that cannabis could have this effect.
Don't see why knowing the full effects matter.

Should probably have linked the article, the purpose of it, was not that people that do extreme sports also do drugs, they are comparing the two groups. Anyway, the point was the dopamine and how the body reacts to it, outside our mind, meaning that these people that enjoy extreme sports are biologically wired differently than those that don't enjoy stuff like that.
You'll need to verify that.

That is what I'm questioning, do we do things because of the biological urges imprinted on us, for which we have little to no control or do we freely choose to do things because we chose to? I'm not convinced that we are as free as we would like to think, but rather that it is an illusion of free will.
We disagree, of course.

I have a friend which doesn't have the least interest in being creative at all, to him, it's all hard facts. Other people are extremely creative and thrive and enjoy stuff like this, did that person using free will choose to be an artist or did the biological urges cause them to follow that path? I don't think that is that easy to answer.
It's easy enough.
Unless your friend is a day old, we know the answer.
We are all affected by things in life, and our feelings, motives, desires, change.
Because we do not feel like doing something, does not mean we lose our ability to exercise our free will.
For example, someone could become so depressed, they do not feel like eating. Does that mean they are no longer free to exercise their will? No.

I am dropping out of this debate though, since it's not going anywhere. (I don't mean with you, but the overall thread :)).
If you have anything you want to add though, which might be new, you can still respond. I will do my best to address what you say, once we have not gone through it already.
:)
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
..but that is not significant .. there is no possibility of the past being a different one either.
It is just a matter of perspective.
Our choices, amongst other things, make what we call the future.
THERE IS ONLY ONE FUTURE.
And how do you know this? Is that the only possible future? How do choices made *in time* fix other aspects of spacetime?
It is more about what fixes it, and not how many futures there are.
In your opinion.
Fixed by what? Who fixes it, and why?
Irrelevant. If it can be known, even in theory, it is fixed. The spacetime manifold is fixed, so NO choices (past or future) are free.

The only option where some sort of free will would be possible is where the manifold is NOT fixed: where certain events have more than one future and choices determine which future our consciousness actually exists in. But, in fact, ALL choices are actually made and ALL possible futures actually happen in some time line. if *that* is the case, then some version of free will might be possible.

I also find it very interesting that you default to the future being determined by a 'who' that has a motivation. I am much more inclined to think it is determined (to the extent it is) by natural laws with no purpose at all.
I notice you are ignoring this.
You are selective in your replies. I have asked many times now.
No, I find the question irrelevant. The spacetime manifold is fixed. I don't know how or whether the question of how even makes sense. ALL of space and time is within that manifold and so all of space and time is fixed.
No, no .. it is more complex.
They are not "already determined" as far as we are concerned.
You are still assuming that our choice is not free, because of temporal order.
..but temporal causation/order is not applicable.
If it is determined from the perspective of outside the spacetime manifold, then choice cannot be free.
What we experience is very real, but an agent that is outside of time can see all.
Which means that we have no way of choosing other than what we do.
In any case, as I have said previously, forget the future being known, because as far as we are concerned, it isn't.
Hence our choices are real.
We are the ones responsible for driving a car safely, and no other. Free-will is real and no illusion.
That has not been shown. Our ignorance of the future doesn't make the choices free.

Once again, that evil scientist can manipulate your wants and feelings to make sure you decide the way s/he wishes. Even though you don't know the future, your choice is not free. It was determined by something other than that choice.

And that is the point from my perspective. Is anything other than 'me' determining what 'choice' I will make? It doesn't need to be another intelligence (like the evil scientist). It can s imply be the laws of physics and the way the atoms in my brain react to each other. My desires are irrelevant *if* those desires are determined by things other than my choices.

The problems, for me, come in when discussing the concept of a choice at both the psychological level and the atomic or molecular levels. At the molecular level, it is only physics and chemistry that determines how the atoms will move. But it those motions, over a quite long period of time (tenths of seconds) that *are* me making a choice.
Meaningless and not borne out by our experience of reality.
 

We Never Know

No Slack
And how do you know this? Is that the only possible future? How do choices made *in time* fix other aspects of spacetime?

In your opinion.

Irrelevant. If it can be known, even in theory, it is fixed.

No, I find the question irrelevant. The spacetime manifold is fixed. ALL of space and time is within that manifold and so all of space and time are fixed.

If it is determined from the perspective of outside the spacetime manifold, then choice cannot be free.

Which means that we have no way of choosing other than what we do.

That has not been shown. Our ignorance of the future doesn't make the choices free.

Once again, that evil scientist can manipulate your wants and feelings to make sure you decide the way s/he wishes. Even though you don't know the future, your choice is not free. It was determined by something other than that choice.

And that is the point from my perspective. Is anything other than 'me' determining what 'choice' I will make? It doesn't need to be another intelligence (like the evil scientist). It can s imply be the laws of physics and the way the atoms in my brain react to each other. My desires are irrelevant *if* those desires are determined by things other than my choices.

The problems, for me, come in when discussing the concept of a choice at both the psychological level and the atomic or molecular levels. At the molecular level, it is only physics and chemistry that determines how the atoms will move. But it those motions, over a quite long period of time (tenths of seconds) that *are* me making a choice.

I believe the past is set(can't be changed)
I do not believe the future is set(can't be changed)

The choices we made set the past and our choices will write the future.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
No, I find the question irrelevant. The spacetime manifold is fixed.
How is the question of what fixes it irrelevant?
If the manifold is fixed by our choices, it is very much NOT irrelevant.

That has not been shown. Our ignorance of the future doesn't make the choices free.

Once again, that evil scientist can manipulate your wants and feelings to make sure you decide the way s/he wishes. Even though you don't know the future, your choice is not free. It was determined by something other than that choice.
Personally, I think you are describing a scenario from cloud-cuckoo land. :)
..so all the cars moving along the highway are being controlled by an evil scientist?
Each to their own.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
The problems, for me, come in when discussing the concept of a choice at both the psychological level and the atomic or molecular levels. At the molecular level, it is only physics and chemistry that determines how the atoms will move. But it those motions, over a quite long period of time (tenths of seconds) that *are* me making a choice.
Not a problem for me.
I call a spade a spade.

When I say that we have free-will, I don't need to consider the physics and chemistry.
To me, it's a nonsense to claim that somebody/something other than the driver is driving the car.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
And if the universe is determined, the choices in that universe don't determine it.
Maybe, and maybe not.
It all depends on what determines it.

It is not as you claim. A determined universe does not automatically rule out free-will.
It is a fallacy. You cannot provide a valid logical proof .. because there isn't one.
It is impossible.
However, there IS a logical proof to show that a determined universe and free-will are compatible.

If you ask me for it, then I need to search the internet .. because I did not bookmark it.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
No, it doesn't.
A determined universe does not imply lack of free-will.
It is all about what determines it.

And if the universe is determined, the choices in that universe don't determine it.
How is the question of what fixes it irrelevant?
If the manifold is fixed by our choices, it is very much NOT irrelevant.
How can the manifold be fixed by things within the manifold?
Personally, I think you are describing a scenario from cloud-cuckoo land. :)
..so all the cars moving along the highway are being controlled by an evil scientist?
Each to their own.

No, but they *are* 'controlled' by the laws of physics.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Not a problem for me.
I call a spade a spade.

When I say that we have free-will, I don't need to consider the physics and chemistry.
To me, it's a nonsense to claim that somebody/something other than the driver is driving the car.

Yes, you are driving the car. But that is because the physics works the way it does. The physics and chemistry is simply the law level description of exactly the same event.

And if physics and chemistry is ALL there is, then free will is an illusion. We can say that we make a choice, but no actual choice was available.
Maybe, and maybe not.
It all depends on what determines it.

It is not as you claim. A determined universe does not automatically rule out free-will.
It is a fallacy. You cannot provide a valid logical proof .. because there isn't one.
It is impossible.
However, there IS a logical proof to show that a determined universe and free-will are compatible.

If you ask me for it, then I need to search the internet .. because I did not bookmark it.
Yes, I'd need to se a proof of that. Because, from what I can see, it is trivially incompatible.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
Yes, I'd need to se a proof of that. Because, from what I can see, it is trivially incompatible.

I can't find the exact article, but it goes along these lines..
  1. God knows choice "C" that a human would claim to "make freely".
  2. It is now necessary that C.
  3. If it is now necessary that C, then C cannot be otherwise (this is the definition of “necessary”). That is, there are no actual "possibilities" due to predestination.
  4. If you cannot do otherwise when you act, you do not act freely (Principle of Alternate Possibilities)
  5. Therefore, when you do an act, you will not do it freely.
This is your argument, right?
It is wrong, due to a modal fallacy.
In particular, the argument assumes that if C is true, it becomes necessary for C to be true, which is incorrect as C is contingent. Otherwise, one can argue that the future is set already regardless of his actions.
Modal_logic
 
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