holy grail of mathematics?

[questfortruth]

If the Riemann Hypothesis is true, does it allow you to find the infinite set of prime numbers absolutely exactly: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc.? If this is some inequality, measurement error, why is the Riemann Hypothesis called the holy grail of mathematics? After all, they can find a more precise theory than Professor Riemann's Theory.

 

[exchemist]

If the Riemann Hypothesis is true, does it allow you to find the infinite set of prime numbers absolutely exactly: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc.? If this is some inequality, measurement error, why is the Riemann Hypothesis called the holy grail of mathematics? After all, they can find a more precise theory than Professor Riemann's Theory.

You don't have measurement errors in pure mathematics.

 

[questfortruth]

You don't have measurement errors in pure mathematics.

F(n)<Pi(n)<G(n), where Pi(n) is prime counting function. This is uncertainty of a theory for determination of Pi(n). The goal is to find the perfect expression Pi(n)=S(n). The Riemann Hypothesis failed to provide the S(n)?

 

[exchemist]

F(n)<Pi(n)<G(n), where Pi(n) is prime counting function. This is uncertainty of a theory for determination of Pi(n). The goal is to find the perfect expression Pi(n)=S(n). The Riemann Hypothesis failed to provide the S(n)?

This is not measurement.