linwood
Well-Known Member
I wish to point out the inconsistencies concerning homosexuality in the bible.
Specifically homosexual behavior either condoned or ignored by God in the Bible.
I have previously posted some of what I will be posting here elsewhere but I havent made my point clear enough it seems.
I wish to clarify it to the best of my abilities here, now.
I first want to point out that what I` m doing is ultimately pointless because I dont believe the Bible should have any bearing on how a person lives their life or what society deems ethical.
I believe the Bibles undeniable support of slavery and oppression of women are examples of why we shouldnt use its guidance in the case of homosexuality or any other moral dilemma.
My first example of homosexuality in the Bible is Jonathan and David as described in 1 Samuel.
Considering my interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:41 is the most contested I will start there.
Correct translation 1 Samuel 20:41:
"After the boy had gone, David got up from the south side of the stone and bowed down before Jonathan three times, with is face to the ground. Then they kissed each other and wept together until David became great."
The part of this verse most debated is the use of the word great
In the original Hebrew the word Gadal is used as a verb and depending on the context that it is used in means he grew or to become great, (intransitive verb)
The closest meaning to English would be to magnify.
I will admit, standing alone and out of context this verse doesnt seem very convincing of Biblical homosexuality.
It was the way this verse was treated by English translations of the Bible which led me to believe that these publishers themselves interpreted the original Hebrew as implying homosexuality.
These Christians themselves thought Jonathan and David were engaged in a homosexual relationship.
I came to this conclusion when I read the various different English translations.
The first and most contested translation is in the KJV .
1 Samuel 20:41 (Kings James Version)
[And] as soon as the lad was gone, David arose out of [a place] toward the south, and fell on his face to the ground, and bowed himself three times: and they kissed one another, and wept one with another, until David exceeded.
Here in the KJV gadal is translated to exceeded.
The Hebrew word for exceeded is not gadal it is gabar.
I believe the publishers/translators of the KJV mistranslated this particular verse to imply that Jonathan and Davids embrace made David strong instead of making him grow or become great.
The meaning of gabar..
to prevail, have strength, be strong, be powerful, be mighty, be great
a. (Qal)
1. to be strong, mighty
2. to prevail
b. (Piel) to make strong, strengthen
c. (Hiphil)
1. to confirm, give strength
2. to confirm (a covenant)
d. (Hithpael)
1. to show oneself mighty
2. to act proudly (toward God)
In order for David to have exceeded the sentence the word "exceeded" is used in would have to define exactly what David exceeded.
In this case it does not and cannot be used in this context.
Furthermore, Gadal cannot be interpreted as exceeded in any context therefore Exceeded is an incorrect translation.
Below Ill summarize a list of mistranslations in a number of English Bibles to show the length these Christian publishers are willing to twist their Gods word to change its meaning for their own purposes whether real or imagined.
-"...and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David got control of himself." (Amplified Bible)
-"and they sadly shook hands, tears running down their cheeks until David could weep no more." (Living Bible)
-"They kissed each other and wept together until David got control of himself." (Modern Language)
-"They kissed each other and wept aloud together." (New American Bible) "Then David and Jonathan kissed each other. They cried together, but David cried the most." (New Century Version)
-"Then the kissed one another and shed tears together, until David's grief was even greater than Jonathan's." (Revised English Bible)
-"...and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David recovered himself." (Revised Standard Version)
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bmar.htm
It seems The Living Bible couldnt restrain its homophobia enough to even allow a kiss between the two.
It has them shaking hands.
The KJV translation could be an honest error but these last are obviously purposely mistranslated.
If this was not done to hide the implication of homosexuality then I would ask those who disagree with me to submit some sort of reasoning for it before they bother to disagree.
This verse is not the only statement that supports a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan in this tale, there is much more that I will go into perhaps tomorrow.
I am not implying that there was a physical relationship between the two as there is no verse to support it as fact.
What I am implying is that this story clearly tells a tale of a relationship that is far more intimate and emotional than that of two heterosexual friends.
I am not a Hebrew scholar and have relied heavily on the work of others for this little post so if anyone sees anything that is incorrect please explain it to me and I wil correct or retract it.
Biblical Reference
http://www.blueletterbible.org/
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bmar.htm
Definition of Semitic languages
http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Semitic_languages
http://www.jcsm.org/StudyCenter/kjvstrongs/STRHEB14.htm#S1431
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Hebrew/
Specifically homosexual behavior either condoned or ignored by God in the Bible.
I have previously posted some of what I will be posting here elsewhere but I havent made my point clear enough it seems.
I wish to clarify it to the best of my abilities here, now.
I first want to point out that what I` m doing is ultimately pointless because I dont believe the Bible should have any bearing on how a person lives their life or what society deems ethical.
I believe the Bibles undeniable support of slavery and oppression of women are examples of why we shouldnt use its guidance in the case of homosexuality or any other moral dilemma.
My first example of homosexuality in the Bible is Jonathan and David as described in 1 Samuel.
Considering my interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:41 is the most contested I will start there.
Correct translation 1 Samuel 20:41:
"After the boy had gone, David got up from the south side of the stone and bowed down before Jonathan three times, with is face to the ground. Then they kissed each other and wept together until David became great."
The part of this verse most debated is the use of the word great
In the original Hebrew the word Gadal is used as a verb and depending on the context that it is used in means he grew or to become great, (intransitive verb)
The closest meaning to English would be to magnify.
I will admit, standing alone and out of context this verse doesnt seem very convincing of Biblical homosexuality.
It was the way this verse was treated by English translations of the Bible which led me to believe that these publishers themselves interpreted the original Hebrew as implying homosexuality.
These Christians themselves thought Jonathan and David were engaged in a homosexual relationship.
I came to this conclusion when I read the various different English translations.
The first and most contested translation is in the KJV .
1 Samuel 20:41 (Kings James Version)
[And] as soon as the lad was gone, David arose out of [a place] toward the south, and fell on his face to the ground, and bowed himself three times: and they kissed one another, and wept one with another, until David exceeded.
Here in the KJV gadal is translated to exceeded.
The Hebrew word for exceeded is not gadal it is gabar.
I believe the publishers/translators of the KJV mistranslated this particular verse to imply that Jonathan and Davids embrace made David strong instead of making him grow or become great.
The meaning of gabar..
to prevail, have strength, be strong, be powerful, be mighty, be great
a. (Qal)
1. to be strong, mighty
2. to prevail
b. (Piel) to make strong, strengthen
c. (Hiphil)
1. to confirm, give strength
2. to confirm (a covenant)
d. (Hithpael)
1. to show oneself mighty
2. to act proudly (toward God)
In order for David to have exceeded the sentence the word "exceeded" is used in would have to define exactly what David exceeded.
In this case it does not and cannot be used in this context.
Furthermore, Gadal cannot be interpreted as exceeded in any context therefore Exceeded is an incorrect translation.
Below Ill summarize a list of mistranslations in a number of English Bibles to show the length these Christian publishers are willing to twist their Gods word to change its meaning for their own purposes whether real or imagined.
-"...and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David got control of himself." (Amplified Bible)
-"and they sadly shook hands, tears running down their cheeks until David could weep no more." (Living Bible)
-"They kissed each other and wept together until David got control of himself." (Modern Language)
-"They kissed each other and wept aloud together." (New American Bible) "Then David and Jonathan kissed each other. They cried together, but David cried the most." (New Century Version)
-"Then the kissed one another and shed tears together, until David's grief was even greater than Jonathan's." (Revised English Bible)
-"...and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David recovered himself." (Revised Standard Version)
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bmar.htm
It seems The Living Bible couldnt restrain its homophobia enough to even allow a kiss between the two.
It has them shaking hands.
The KJV translation could be an honest error but these last are obviously purposely mistranslated.
If this was not done to hide the implication of homosexuality then I would ask those who disagree with me to submit some sort of reasoning for it before they bother to disagree.
This verse is not the only statement that supports a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan in this tale, there is much more that I will go into perhaps tomorrow.
I am not implying that there was a physical relationship between the two as there is no verse to support it as fact.
What I am implying is that this story clearly tells a tale of a relationship that is far more intimate and emotional than that of two heterosexual friends.
I am not a Hebrew scholar and have relied heavily on the work of others for this little post so if anyone sees anything that is incorrect please explain it to me and I wil correct or retract it.
Biblical Reference
http://www.blueletterbible.org/
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bmar.htm
Definition of Semitic languages
http://www.wordiq.com/definition/Semitic_languages
http://www.jcsm.org/StudyCenter/kjvstrongs/STRHEB14.htm#S1431
http://www.biblestudytools.net/Lexicons/Hebrew/