No.It is still an abomination.The reason for this is because it goes against the natural ways of Husband and Wife.It is a gross imperfection.Sexual immorality.It was in the OT for Jews and is in the NT for Christians.
It is more natural for a man to sleep with multiple women. Marriage is when he and a woman are made one flesh for the purposes of rearing righteous children, dedicating themselves to that task. It requires a contract, rules, agreements and effort and is therefore not natural but requires conscious choices. That doesn't make it unimportant. Its still important. A Jewish father is required to talk constantly about the Torah with his children.
You referred me to Romans 1:26-27. Because we are talking about the Bible, we know that this passage is referring to something that happened in the Bible to Jews, not to Gentiles. In particular this is probably (almost certainly) talking about the Jews who were dragged away by Assyrians and Babylonians and made to eat strange foods and to live like foreigners. They lost their special ability to keep Torah and were made to eat abominable foods and were no longer permitted to live by Torah. The whole book of
Lamentations was written about it, because it was a subject of lament and was so traumatic. This passage in Romans 1:26 is one teensy little reference to all of that. Its about abominations, and only Jews can commit abominations that turn them into Gentiles. Gentiles cannot commit abominations, because we are already Gentiles. We already don't have the Torah, so we can't lose it. You can't lose something you already don't have.
You referred me to 1 Corinthians 6:9-10. This one is commonly debated, and you probably have already heard that it refers to temple prostitution of little boys. Its a terrible thing that was a reality in those days, and even today is a problem. Even today children are in danger of falling victim to sex trafficking, and that is (most likely) what this passage refers to rather than to homosexuality.
Let me ask you this: why does Ezekiel refer to the sin of Sodom and Gomorah not as a sexual sin but as the sin of being arrogant, overfed and not caring for the poor? Why, specifically, does Ezekiel not mention homosexuality or 'Sodomy'? (Ezekiel 16:49) "
Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy." So it becomes clear that in the eyes of Ezekiel, a prophet, that 'Sodomy' is not sexual but has to do with arrogance and unconcern. In fact if sex through the anus was such a big deal then Ezekiel should have mentioned it, since he said "This is the sin of your sister Sodom." Yes, we know that the men had sex with men in Sodom, because we can read the story yet Ezekiel doesn't include it as one of Sodom's sins. Instead he lists other things. Well, the simplest answer is that since Sodom was not Jewish there was no objection to how sex was performed, just as there was no objection if men in Sodom ate bacon or not.
Secondly, why is it that in the story of the destruction of the city of Sodom, why is it that Abraham not once is told by the angels that the men are sinning sexually? Instead the angels tell him that "The outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is so great and their sin so grievous that I will go down and see if what they have done is as bad as the outcry that has reached me" (NIV Gen 18:21). So Genesis tells us there was an outcry against Sodom, and Ezekiel details what that outcry was. So Christians should stop obsessing over trivialities about who is using the back-door during sex and start obsessing over how the poor are being taken care of and whether there is arrogance in our cities. We should above-all avoid slavery, which the king of Sodom was clearly involved in. He even said openly to Abraham "Give me the people and you take the goods" but Abraham would not touch his filthy money. Genesis never explains why, but Ezekiel tells us why.