Studying a book cannot prove that its recorded events and message are authentic, however. If that is so, I could say that the works of Arthur Conan Doyle proves the existence and work of Sherlock Holmes.
Hi Buddhist,
That is the beauty of biblical interpretation. Research and studying is already a practice to validate and justify things for historical events. There are discoveries that we can look at like archaeology, geography, customs and traditions, and places that has been narrated in the Bible. Just like what you did in finding the
Greek and Hebrew text is already a part of research and study.
I read it already. If we would look at the
authenticity and
validity of the source of information, this is very far from the
depth of chronological set up of the Bible starting from the book of Genesis, the Father God who is the Creator, and the prophecies--down to the life of Jesus Christ including the Revelation. Secondly, the witness and testimony of Jesus’ disciples/Apostles in the gospels, and the letters. The ancient record of Jesus in India has to be compared with the account that is in the Bible to prove their consistency and authenticity.
If this claim is true by some people who believed about Christ’s lost years, what difference would it make from John 14:6, the crucifixion, and all Christ’s teachings?
It seems you are using the Old Testament as your authority. How did you judge the Old Testament to be more authoritative, over the writings that speak of Jesus in India, or any other text?
My answer to this is the same as above.
I used the Old Testament as my evidence because of the fulfillment of the prophecy starting from Jesus Christ’s birth, His coming, mission, and the crucifixion. No mention about the lost years in India. I just remembered that there is also a belief claimed that Jesus traveled in Central America and He preached there. This is also one of the inconsistencies that we can see if we dig the truth with the Bible.
Isn't the idea that your "God is eternal" an assumption?
If the problem that you cited is more of
translation by men, the Greek text of the word “eternal” does not change. Isn’t it?
Now, if you believe that its meaning is agelong with undefined end, but not eternal as eternal life, what should be the authority that will defined the word “aeon” for you? Do you have a reference like interlinear?
May I request to see it?
My evaluation is based on etymology, lexiography, and context involved in its historical use. Aeon = eon; an eon is extremely long, of an unperceivable length (aka undefined end), but not infinite.
May I request for a reference or the source?
Thanks