Why do you assume that it refers to a plural?So, to me the plural heaven(s) is logical at Genesis 1:1.
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Why do you assume that it refers to a plural?So, to me the plural heaven(s) is logical at Genesis 1:1.
Except that only one heaven was created in 1:1Any thoughts about 1 Kings 8:27; 1 Kings 8:30,39,49
Plus we have the mid-heavens where the birds fly, besides outer space sometimes referred to as the heavens.
There is the ' spirit heavens ' where angelic life resides. So, to me the plural heaven(s) is logical at Genesis 1:1.
Language is tricky.I do not understand what you're saying here.
My understanding is that it's a plural noun but used in the singular.Before the King James Bible was translated into English, Genesis was in Hebrew, so originally its heavens with an 's'.
Language is tricky. Your using a whole nuther set of terms here.its the unconditional mind moved by love upon the potential. the actual comes from the potential. the potential comes from the actual. upon the collapse of the actual it becomes a potential. upon the raising of the potential comes the actual. like einstein's e = m(c*c). one is just the other. they are equal and the same thing; except in form. creation comes from love and god so loved the world, herself realized.
similar to the hindu cosmology
Yes, language is tricky. Note, for example, how easily you slide rom 'plural' to 'dualistic'.Language is tricky.
My understanding of the word used for heaven in 1:1 is a plural used as a singular much like we say a bunch of grapes; one bunch but many grapes. This leads me to think that heaven has the same dualistic qualities of of the creation.
Yet as soon as something become plural, dualities exist.Yes, language is tricky. Note, for example, how easily you slide rom 'plural' to 'dualistic'.
Parenthetically, your comparison doesn't quite work. A single grape is neither a 'bunch' nor 'grapes'.
See Heavens in Judaism. Hebrew is a gendered language, and the second syllable is the standard form of the masculine plural.Is the plurality reflected in the Hebrew or introduced in the translation into English?
Language is tricky. Your using a whole nuther set of terms here.
Let's start with the unconditional mind if you please. Is this more than a mind that is not bound by the here and now? I've heard Kaku expound on this in connection with quantum physics.
To me, instead of interfered be more like intervened, but either way, then God could be accused of being a Bully by involving Himself into mankind's affairs. Remember: God gifted us with free-will choices. By breaking God's Law then Adam set up People Rule as superior to God Rule, so only with the passing of enough time would it show who rule is best.
What? The first word of the Bible is בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית (beresheit), It is composed of the prefix “b-“ which modified the root to mean “in” in this case. The root is a conjugated form of “Rosh”. Rosh means head but also can mean front, start, or beginning, which is the case here. The suffix “-‘t” makes it a particular declarative. So it translates to “in (the) beginning”.It means the same thing as First and foremost. The word for that whole phrase is Re'shiyth, and that's what it means.
The first the words of the Bible. Why does this mean the beginning of the universe?
Sorry, that translation is just plain wrong. The first verse of the original Hebrew text reads,Genesis 1:1 KJV "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." One heaven. Two more heavens are described later.
The original text has it as a plural,Why do you assume that it refers to a plural?
The Hebrew context and construction doesn’t support your understanding. In Genesis (Beresheit) 1 it refers to heavens in the plural.My understanding is that it's a plural noun but used in the singular.
The Jewish translations with which I am familiar (Stone-Artscroll, Cabad's CJB, JPS, Fox , and Alter) interpret the opening verses as being in the construct form, i.e., "In the beginning of ...".It is not ambiguous and is quite clearly plural.Sorry, that translation is just plain wrong. The first verse of the original Hebrew text reads,
“בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית בָּרָ֣א אֱלֹהִ֑ים אֵ֥ת הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם וְאֵ֥ת הָאָֽרֶץ”
The word in the verse “הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם” means heavens, in the plural. It is not ambiguous and is quite clearly plural.
And Elohim translates as gods and payim translates as faces and ...The original text has it as a plural,
“הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם”,
Translates to heavens in the plural.
In which case you will only find two heavens being created.The Hebrew context and construction doesn’t support your understanding. In Genesis (Beresheit) 1 it refers to heavens in the plural.