And if he wasn't God, they you have another problem... make him an angel or something creating a whole new set of problems for support.
On the contrary...there is more support for Jesus being created than him being Almighty God.
Revelation 3:14 look what Jesus calls himself....?
“And to the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write,
‘These things says the Amen, the Faithful and True Witness, the Beginning of the creation of God:" (NKJV)
Also Colossians 1:15.
"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation." (NKJV)
The problem is that you study from the JW Bible... translated by the same, and only accepted by the same. I look for the Greek.
Well then you'd be wrong again. I use lots of different translation and Strongs Concordance and I haven't found a false translation of any word or teaching in the NWT yet.
I was raised in Christendom, so I had a lot of study to do so that I could prove to myself who taught the truth and who didn't.....it didn't take me long. I studied solidly for two years (with my own KJV) before I made a decision. I have never doubted that decision.
Except he said to worship God alone.
Actually when he was tempted by the devil, Jesus quoted the Hebrew scriptures all three times.
In Luke 4:8 he quoted Deuteronomy 10:20, which reads in the ASV...
"Thou shalt fear Jehovah thy God; him shalt thou serve; and to him shalt thou cleave, and by his name shalt thou swear."
But in the AKJV it reads....
"Thou shalt fear the Lord thy God; him shalt thou serve, and to him shalt thou cleave, and swear by his name." (AKJV)
So who is "the Lord thy God"?......It isn't Jesus.
Moses was the mediator of the Law -- which ultimately was just a schoolmaster to point to God through faith. I am of the faith of Abraham.
And Jesus is the mediator of the "new covenant", just as Moses was a mediator of the old covenant....Jesus is the "prophet like Moses".
Did Abraham believe in a triune God?
Neither do I...and for the same reason.
I already proved my point with the angel saying only proskyneo God. Your explanation didn't diminish my point
Luke 4:10 Then saith Jesus unto
him,Get thee
hence,
Satan: for it is
written, Thou shalt
worship the
Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou
serve. Jesus said only to proskuneo God.
I think you are confusing Greek with Hebrew. Since Jesus was quoting the Hebrew scriptures, he was not advocating obeisance to his Father, but worship as Jews understood worship.
Did Jews distinguish between worship and obeisance?
In Genesis 23:7 the word used when Abraham bowed down to the sons of Heth is
"shachah". Abraham was not "worshipping" those men, but bowing to them in respect.
It can mean....obeisance or worship, just lik
e "pro·sky·neʹo". Context determines how it is understood.
Just as the Jews knew the difference between worship and obeisance, so did the Greeks. Please see the link to demonstrate how this word is used in other parts of the Hebrew scriptures.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=H7812&t=NASB
You have basically said that all the words of worshipping the Father... doesn't mean worship. Or if you decide that if it is towards Jesus it is to honor Him but to the Father it is worship, then the sword cuts both ways.
Yes it does.
and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God
;
which they concluded very rightly, from his saying, ( John 10:30 ) , that God was his Father, and that he and his Father were one; that is, in nature and essence, and therefore he must be God; but then this was no blasphemy, but a real truth, as is hereafter made to appear; nor is there any contradiction between his being man, and being God; he is truly and really man, but then he is not a mere man, as the Jews suggested; but is truly God, as well as man, and is both God and man in one person, the divine and human nature being united in him, of which they were ignorant: two mistakes they seem to be guilty of in this account; one that Christ was a mere man, the other that he made himself God, or assumed deity to himself, which did not belong to him, and therefore must be guilty of blasphemy; neither of which were true: the phrase is used by the Jews, of others who have taken upon them the name and title of God; as of Hiram king of Tyre, of whom they say, (hola wmue have) , "that he made himself God" F18; the same they say of Nebuchadnezzar; and the modern Jews still continue the same charge against Jesus, as their ancestors did, and express it in the same language, and say of him, that he was a man, and set himself up for God F19. John Gill
I have addressed this above. But just to add.....let's take John 10:30:
When saying,
“I and the Father are one,” did Jesus mean that they were equal? Some Trinitarians say that he did. But at John 17:21, 22, Jesus prayed regarding his followers:
“That they may all be one,” and he added,
“that they may be one even as we are one.” He used the same Greek word (hen) for “one” in all these instances. Obviously, Jesus’ disciples do not all become part of the Trinity. But they do come to share a oneness of purpose with the Father and the Son, the same sort of oneness that unites God and Christ.
All is not as you have been led to believe......