Thanda
Well-Known Member
Okay so in another thread @Prestor John mentioned the seed of Cain and how they were only allowed to receive the priesthood recently. This was of course in reference to the priesthood ban on people of African descent instituted by President Brigham Young in 1852 (incidentally the first year missionaries arrived in Cape Town
South Africa). He declared:
This I suppose is where the term "the seed of Cain" originates. The purpose of this debate is to discuss the reasonableness of
Ostensibly the ban on the priesthood was meant to apply only to those who were the seed of Cain. However Brigham Young made a point of specifying the degree to which someone must be the seed of Cain before they are denied the priesthood. He said they should not have one drop of blood of the seed of Cain. This of course poses problems since we know that everyone, including Brigham Young himself is the seed of each of Noah's Son's including the children Ham who had the seed of Cain in them through their Mother. Thus if Brigham Young had properly understood the ban he had instituted he would have known that he had effectively banned himself and every other member of the church from the priesthood.
All this assumes that by the seed of Cain he meant the literal lineage of Cain (which seems to be the case). However the term seed is sometimes used in the scriptures to refer disciples rather than literal children (see Mosiah 15:10-11). In that case the more reasonable conclusion would have been that those who followed after the works of Cain were banned from the priesthood.
However it is what it is. Brigham Young banned all blood descendants of Cain and having done so he should have prevented everyone from having the priesthood.
Using someone's status as a seed of Cain to deny them saving ordinances.
Now I wish to discuss the logic of using someone's status as the seed of Cain (i.e. a blood descendant) as a reason to prevent someone obtaining the priesthood and temple ordinances.
The doctrine of the seed of Cain as held by some seems to expect us to believe the following:
Now I would that ye should see that they brought upon themselves the curse; and even so doth every man that is cursed bring upon himself his own condemnation. (Amla 3:19)
For none of these iniquities come of the Lord; for he doeth that which is good among the children of men; and he doeth nothing save it be plain unto the children of men; and he inviteth them all to come unto him and partake of his goodness; and he denieth none that come unto him, black and white, bond and free, male and female; and he remembereth the heathen; and all are alike unto God, both Jew and Gentile.
It is my position that points 1) and 2) are not reasonable and that other reasons (other than people of African descent being the seed of Cain) was behind the ban on the priesthood.
Your thoughts please.
P.S. Remember, LDS only.
South Africa). He declared:
any man having one drop of the seed of [Cain] ... in him cannot hold the priesthood and if no other Prophet ever spake it before I will say it now in the name of Jesus Christ I know it is true and others know it.
This I suppose is where the term "the seed of Cain" originates. The purpose of this debate is to discuss the reasonableness of
- Calling Africans the seed of Cain
- Using someone's status as a seed of Cain to deny them saving ordinances.
Ostensibly the ban on the priesthood was meant to apply only to those who were the seed of Cain. However Brigham Young made a point of specifying the degree to which someone must be the seed of Cain before they are denied the priesthood. He said they should not have one drop of blood of the seed of Cain. This of course poses problems since we know that everyone, including Brigham Young himself is the seed of each of Noah's Son's including the children Ham who had the seed of Cain in them through their Mother. Thus if Brigham Young had properly understood the ban he had instituted he would have known that he had effectively banned himself and every other member of the church from the priesthood.
All this assumes that by the seed of Cain he meant the literal lineage of Cain (which seems to be the case). However the term seed is sometimes used in the scriptures to refer disciples rather than literal children (see Mosiah 15:10-11). In that case the more reasonable conclusion would have been that those who followed after the works of Cain were banned from the priesthood.
However it is what it is. Brigham Young banned all blood descendants of Cain and having done so he should have prevented everyone from having the priesthood.
Using someone's status as a seed of Cain to deny them saving ordinances.
Now I wish to discuss the logic of using someone's status as the seed of Cain (i.e. a blood descendant) as a reason to prevent someone obtaining the priesthood and temple ordinances.
The doctrine of the seed of Cain as held by some seems to expect us to believe the following:
- Cain rebelled against God and was cursed as to the priesthood
- Cain's curse followed all his children
- His curse was as not patriarchal as the priesthood is and was also transmitted through women
- The curse by Noah upon Ham and his children was incidental as they had already been cursed even before they transgressed
- No amount of years and no number of dispensations could make the Lord forgive or forget Cain's treachery and the curse He felt was due to his children as a result.
- Not even the Atonement was sufficient to repeal the curse
- When Jesus said the Gospel must be preached to ends of the earth he meant only those ends that didn't include the descendants of Cain
- The Churches that sprung up in parts of Africa complete with their own priesthood holders during the Apostolic period were all apostate or were an example of a temporary lapse in the enforcement of the ban.
- This temporary lapse continued when the fullness of the Gospel was restored by Joseph Smith and it took Brigham Young to remember (or be inspired to remember) that the curse was actually still in effect and to re-establish it.
- The Lord finally forgave Cain's seed for the deeds their father committed almost 6000 years before in 1978.
Now I would that ye should see that they brought upon themselves the curse; and even so doth every man that is cursed bring upon himself his own condemnation. (Amla 3:19)
For none of these iniquities come of the Lord; for he doeth that which is good among the children of men; and he doeth nothing save it be plain unto the children of men; and he inviteth them all to come unto him and partake of his goodness; and he denieth none that come unto him, black and white, bond and free, male and female; and he remembereth the heathen; and all are alike unto God, both Jew and Gentile.
It is my position that points 1) and 2) are not reasonable and that other reasons (other than people of African descent being the seed of Cain) was behind the ban on the priesthood.
Your thoughts please.
P.S. Remember, LDS only.
Last edited: