Koldo
Outstanding Member
God has no moral responsibilities and that is why you never see God in a court of law
This means you are mixing up moral responsability with legal accountability. Being judged by a court of law doesn't require being morally responsible. Likewise, being morally responsible doesn't mean you will be judged by a court of law.
And so?
You were saying that God allows suffering but doesn't enable it. To enable is to allow.
Comparing human spirituality to painting a wall is the fallacy of false equivalence.
God has no desire to MAKE humans achieve anything. Whatever humans achieve has to be achieved by the humans, not by God.
Did you never hear that God is patient? That means that God is not in a hurry. We have our whole lives to achieve spirituality.
This got me pondering how to reply to this part, because there are multiple points to address, but I am going straight to where it matters the most: If God has no desire to make humans achieve anything, then God has no desire for humans to achieve perfection. Meaning that this entails there is no purpose for suffering since it doesn't achieve anything that God wants.
That can only be proven if you interview people and ask them about their pain and gain. You might also be able to find studies on the internet.
You didn't quite understand what I said. I am not saying there is never any gain to be had from pain. I am asking you to show there is a logical necessity between pain and gain, in the form that gain necessitates pain, as you were saying.
Suffering maximizes well-being if it causes is to turn to God. It is good for anyone to turn to God.
What does 'good' mean here?
Your answers imply you are not talking about an omnipotent God because an omnipotent God only does what He chooses to do.
That means that whatever God has chosen to do is what an omnipotent God would do.
That means that any of your ideas about what God could have done 'differently' would never be done by an omnipotent God because God has chosen not to do them.
“Say: O people! Let not this life and its deceits deceive you, for the world and all that is therein is held firmly in the grasp of His Will. He bestoweth His favor on whom He willeth, and from whom He willeth He taketh it away. He doth whatsoever He chooseth.”
Logic tells us that if God does what He chooses that means that God would not do what God does not choose to do.
Since God chose to create a world that has suffering, that means that God would not create a world that has no suffering.
That is not what I am saying. I am saying that since God did not choose to disallow suffering God did not want to disallow suffering.
I am not saying that God could not have chosen to disallow suffering, but that could only have happened if God had wanted to do that.
If God could have chosen to disallow suffering but didn't want to then God is not omnibenevolent.
It doesn't matter if God 'could have' chosen to replace suffering with something else that also aids human development since God did not choose to do that.
It does matter because choosing suffering when something else could be chosen entails that God is not omnibenevolent.
No, it does not mean that.
Explain how so then.