The evidence you have provided is the alleged prophecies, and since you have not shown that they pass the criteria I provided, I do not see why anyone should believe them.
I told you many posts ago that the prophecies that were fulfilled by Baha’u’llah are not the best evidence and they are not the evidence that Baha’u’llah enjoined us to look at. In fact, He never told us to look at the prophecies, that is just something I did because Iwas posting to Christians.
Some time ago when asked for evidence I posted the claims of Baha’u’llah and the evidence that supports the claims of Baha’u’llah on this thread:
Questions for knowledgeable Bahai / followers of Baha'u'llah
I also told you that they all pass your criteria although no prophecy can pass #5 because all prophecies no matter how specific they are can be interpreted in more than one way.
Yet you have claimed you know simply because you have a religious belief of that.
I never claimed that is why I know. I know because if the evidence (see above).
I'd say that's still irrelevant, because if the wording of the prophecy is vague, then you can't be sure if it actually is saying something similar.
Yes, that is true in some cases.
Even if they were written before, they still need to pass the other criteria.
They do pass all your criteria except #5 The prophecy is specific and is not open to interpretation. I contest that being on your list because there is no prophecy that is not open to different interpretations no matter how specific it is. This prophecy I cited before is very specific:
Micah 7:12 In that day also he shall come even to thee from Assyria, and from the fortified cities, and from the fortress even to the river, and from sea to sea, and from mountain to mountain.
While there is only one correct interpretation, people do not all interpret it the same way. For example, someone could not figure out who he referred to so that person changed
he to
they!
Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers
(12) In that day also he shall come.—Rather translate, In that day shall they (impersonal) come even to thee from Assyria and (from) the cities of Matzor (i.e., Egypt), and from Matzor even to the river (Euphrates), and from sea to sea, and (from) mountain to mountain. The prophet beholds people coming from all parts of the earth to Jerusalem. Isaiah foresaw the like future, and spoke of Assyria, Egypt, and Israel being assembled together, “whom the Lord of Hosts shall bless, saying, Blessed be Egypt, my people, and Assyria, the work of my hands, and Israel, mine inheritance” (
Isaiah 19:25). The Christian reader can hardly refrain from discerning on the horizon of Micah’s vision that marvellous assembly of the representatives of the nations in Jerusalem on the Day of Pentecost.
It says
he, not
they. It is referring to the Messiah who was Baha’u’llah and who travelled to all those places, not of his own free will but because he was banished and exiled for 40 years.
If Person X writes a prophecy, and then 500 years later Person Y came along and decided, "Hey, this prophecy is pretty cool, I'm going to do what it says so I can be the one to fulfill it," it does NOT mean that Person X who wrote the prophecy had any knowledge about the future at all.
Prophecy
· the foretelling or prediction of what is to come.
· something that is declared by a prophet, especially a divinely inspired prediction, instruction, or exhortation.
· a divinely inspired utterance or revelation: oracular prophecies.
· the action, function, or faculty of a prophet.
Definition of prophecy | Dictionary.com
A prophecy is a prediction of what is to come so the prophet who wrote the prophecy had to have some knowledge of what was going to happen in the future in order to write the prophecy. What the prophet knew in the past has nothing to do with the man who read the Bible and later decided to do what the prophecy says.
How do you figure that the prophecy would still be correct?
You said:
And if the prophecy was only fulfilled because someone embellished the event that allegedly fulfilled it to make it look like the prophecy was correct, but the actual event didn't happen as described and so didn't fulfill the prophecy, then again, it's not worth bothering with it because the claim it was fulfilled is wrong.
The prophecy would still be correct as written, but if a man embellished the event that the prophecy was referring to in order to make it appear as if it had been fulfilled, then the actual event didn't happen as described and so didn't fulfill the prophecy. In that case, it would not be not worth bothering with the man who claimed to have fulfilled the prophecy because he would have been a phony because his claim that it was fulfilled is wrong. However, the prophecy is still right and another man might come along and fulfill it by doing what was written in the prophecy, not deliberately, but because that is what he was destined by God to do.
No. Any idiot can write a prophecy. That does not make them a prophet. It is only once the prophecy has been fulfilled in a way that meets the criteria that we should sit up and say, "Hey, maybe this person did somehow have knowledge of the future."
Apparently we are talking at cross purposes because I am assuming a divinely inspired scripture that truly predicts the future Second Coming of Christ/Messiah and you are talking about anyone who could have been an idiot, who
might have had knowledge of the future. The problem with your proposition is that if it was not a divinely inspired prophet who predicted the Second Coming of Christ/Messiah, whatever was predicted would have been of no importance, so who cares if this person did somehow have knowledge of the future? Do you understand what I am saying?
BTW, I'm going to make a slight alteration to the criteria. The updated criteria are:
· The prophecy must not be about something that is likely to happen anyway.
· Where we have verified that the prophecy was written prior to the event that fulfilled it.
· Where we have verified that the event that fulfilled it really took place in a way that fulfilled the prophecy.
· The fulfilling event was not done by someone simply to make the prophecy come true.
· The prophecy is specific and is not open to interpretation.
The criteria I removed was that we need several prophecies about the same thing. I don't think that's really required. After all, if, back in the 1950s, someone made a prophecy about how a rocketship named Challenger was going to explode in late January 1986 only 73 seconds after launch and 7 people were going to die, then that one prophecy would still be enough to make me sit up and take notice.
I am glad you removed that criterion because I did not really understand what you were getting at. From my perspective, the need for several prophecies about the same thing would mean that there would need to be several prophecies that refer to one event that will take place when Christ returns, and there are several prophecies about the same events in the Bible. However there is not always more than one prophecy about the same event and that is not a requirement in order for a prophecy pertaining to an event to be valid.
I included that criteria as you mentioned how we need all the prophecies pointing to one person (or fulfilling event, if we want to make it a more general statement) in post 264. I'm perfectly happy to say that even if there is only a single prophecy, if it passes the criteria, I'll accept it.
Are you saying that if there is only one prophecy pointing to one person (e.g. Micah 7:12), if the fulfillment of that prophecy passes all your criteria you would be willing to believe that the person who fulfilled the prophecy was the man that the prophecy was referring to?
I'm replacing it with the criteria, "The prophecy must not be about something that is likely to happen anyway." I would hope the reason for this is obvious; if someone makes the prophecy that England will have a leader in the year 2300, it doesn't count because it's extremely likely that England will indeed have a leader at that point.
I have a bit of a problem with this criterion because I have been thinking about something completely different from what you are thinking about. I am thinking about the Second Coming of Christ/coming of the Messiah which is supposed to happen eventually as predicted (prophesied) in the Old Testament.
But this criterion can be used to apply to a prediction that is not likely to occur if we are not talking about the Second Coming of Christ/coming of the Messiah but rather talking about prophecies in general. For example, Baha’u’llah made many predictions that were not likely to happen anyway, as whether they happened or not was contingent upon whether the kings and rulers recognized Him as the return of Christ. These prophecies would meet all of your criteria. If you want an example I can provide it in the next post.