POST ONE
[FONT="]1)[/FONT][FONT="] Clear[/FONT][FONT="] said : # 172 -[/FONT][FONT="] "[/FONT][FONT="]For example, the OP uses as a premise : “Man was created in the image of G-d.”: “And God made man. According to [the] image of God he made him.” (gen 1:27)[/FONT][FONT="]" [/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva replied : [/FONT][FONT="]“NOTE - that that verse is from GENESIS - from HEBREW![/FONT][FONT="]”[/FONT][FONT="]
Yes. insightful.
Ingledsva :
I also, “went back to the Hebrew” just as you claimed to have done, I looked at the Hebrew (Mt) and note that the translation from the Hebrew itself reads :
“So God created man in His image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them”. HEBREW Now note the Jewish translation into Greek:
And God made man. According to the image of God he made him. Male and female he made them. GREEK.
The GREEK was taken from the LXX (a Jewish Translation from hebrew) and the HEBREW was taken from the Masoretic (The main Jewish translation from Hebrew) and quoted from the Chumash (stones) which contains the rabbinic writings and mishnic commentary on the translation – you cannot get more “Jewish” than this Hebrew in this Chumash.
Can anyone on the forum tell us any significant differences? (a historian/linguist will note one…
Ingledsva, if you believe this Hebrew translation above is incorrect, then tell me what you think is incorrect and lets discuss the Hebrew.
Ingledsva - If you really are able to see any difference of significance, I would like to have you point it out. Your main argument seemed to depend so much on "hebrew" and what you thought (and seemed to claim) were differences. Do you actually, really, truly, see any significant difference? Does anyone on the forum?
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2)[/FONT][FONT="] Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] said : Your second sentence -
CLEAR - "The greek LXX uses the term “εικονα“ (“Icon” in english) for “image” of God."
YOU immediately launched into GREEK - concerning a HEBREW text!
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Read the translations above Ingledsva.
The English texts which you are using are even further away from the actual Hebrew than either the Hebrew text that I used OR the greek text that I have used. If you are a "translator" of "Hebrew" and "Greek", why would you do this? You rant about using Hebrew when you have not (so far) been able to describe a significant difference, nor have you been able to use actual Hebrew (so far).
It is an irrelevant façade. I believe forum members are tired of it. Drop it and discuss the actual Hebrew with me. You claim you are a “translator” of “Hebrew”. Lets discuss actual Hebrew. I’ve given you a very, very simple question :
Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] : You gave us english (which you said represented Hebrew) in other verses, in order to make a point regarding Genesis 1:27. but you never discussed Genesis 1:27 itself. This hebrew comes from the very verse we disagree about. Thus, I think it is an IMPORTANT verse to our disagreement. If you cannot make any counterpoint to Rashi or me, then I think by forfit, your simple claim that you are right will have to yield to the weight of objective data that is against you. (Unless you have some bit of data to offer against the claim you seem to disagree with).[/FONT][FONT="]
3)[/FONT][FONT="] Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] said : “I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW[/FONT][FONT="].”[/FONT][FONT="]
Yes you did. It was an unusually irrational and quite illogical thing to say.
Is there anyone who read the almost identical verses from BOTH Hebrew and Greek that sees this as a rational and logical point?
If they are virtually identical in all significants meanings, then if one is “WRONG”, the other is “WRONG”, since they say the same thing in all significant points in this verse..
[/FONT][FONT="]A)[/FONT][FONT="] FORUM MEMBERS : A test question for you : [/FONT][FONT="]
The Greek text tells us that : God rested on the sixth day.
The Hebrew text tells us that : God rested on the sixth day.
Which one is correct and which one is wrong? Hmmm? Which one?
Ingledsvas’ point is illogical and Irrational.
[/FONT][FONT="]B)[/FONT][FONT="] F[/FONT][FONT="]ORUM MEMBERS : Another test question[/FONT][FONT="]: [/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva said : “I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW.”
My quotes from Genesis came from the Septuagint (the LXX).
Test question is : WHO WROTE THE LXX, GREEKS OR JEWS?
Answer : If you guessed THE JEWS WROTE THE GREEK I QUOTED, THEN YOU ARE CORRECT.
However, my version is at least 1900 years closer to the Hebrew that existed in 300 b.c. than Ingledsvas English version. Which one seems more historically true to the era we are discussing?
[/FONT][FONT="]C)[/FONT][FONT="] FORUM MEMBERS, ANOTHER QUESTION ON THIS SUBJECT : Language[/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva said : I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW.”
Which is more historically inconsistent? :
Clears' quoting from the ancient language the Christians used .
or
Ingledsvas quoted from a modern English version which none of the earliest Christian ever used. She did not offer any Hebrew text or characters to discuss. Not one in the entire thread, other than to quote me when I used them.
Clear quoted from an actual Jewish translation from Hebrew into the greek created 300 b.c. (LXX) Since his point was simply that the Early Christian tradition was that man was actually created in the image of God, he quoted from the book the Christian converts to this movement were most likely to have used.
Ingledsva has always, so far, quoted from modern English versions created at least 1600 years AFTER Jesus (a.d.) Ingledsva has not given us a single quote from actual Hebrew to examine.
I might remind forum readers, that NOT a SINGLE Christian convert to the Christian movement within the first 1000 years even HAD an English translation to read.
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[FONT="]1)[/FONT][FONT="] Clear[/FONT][FONT="] said : # 172 -[/FONT][FONT="] "[/FONT][FONT="]For example, the OP uses as a premise : “Man was created in the image of G-d.”: “And God made man. According to [the] image of God he made him.” (gen 1:27)[/FONT][FONT="]" [/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva replied : [/FONT][FONT="]“NOTE - that that verse is from GENESIS - from HEBREW![/FONT][FONT="]”[/FONT][FONT="]
Yes. insightful.
Ingledsva :
I also, “went back to the Hebrew” just as you claimed to have done, I looked at the Hebrew (Mt) and note that the translation from the Hebrew itself reads :
“So God created man in His image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them”. HEBREW Now note the Jewish translation into Greek:
And God made man. According to the image of God he made him. Male and female he made them. GREEK.
The GREEK was taken from the LXX (a Jewish Translation from hebrew) and the HEBREW was taken from the Masoretic (The main Jewish translation from Hebrew) and quoted from the Chumash (stones) which contains the rabbinic writings and mishnic commentary on the translation – you cannot get more “Jewish” than this Hebrew in this Chumash.
Can anyone on the forum tell us any significant differences? (a historian/linguist will note one…
Ingledsva, if you believe this Hebrew translation above is incorrect, then tell me what you think is incorrect and lets discuss the Hebrew.
Ingledsva - If you really are able to see any difference of significance, I would like to have you point it out. Your main argument seemed to depend so much on "hebrew" and what you thought (and seemed to claim) were differences. Do you actually, really, truly, see any significant difference? Does anyone on the forum?
[/FONT][FONT="]
2)[/FONT][FONT="] Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] said : Your second sentence -
CLEAR - "The greek LXX uses the term “εικονα“ (“Icon” in english) for “image” of God."
YOU immediately launched into GREEK - concerning a HEBREW text!
[/FONT][FONT="]
Read the translations above Ingledsva.
The English texts which you are using are even further away from the actual Hebrew than either the Hebrew text that I used OR the greek text that I have used. If you are a "translator" of "Hebrew" and "Greek", why would you do this? You rant about using Hebrew when you have not (so far) been able to describe a significant difference, nor have you been able to use actual Hebrew (so far).
It is an irrelevant façade. I believe forum members are tired of it. Drop it and discuss the actual Hebrew with me. You claim you are a “translator” of “Hebrew”. Lets discuss actual Hebrew. I’ve given you a very, very simple question :
[/FONT][FONT="]The great Jewish Rabbi Rashi says that צלם can mean “a mold”. By this, he is referring to a mold used to used in shaping another thing, like a mold for pottery, cups, car tires, etc. Rashi comments on this specific point in the rabbinics.
Since you are a “translator” of Hebrew, do you think Rabbi Rashi is correct in his rendering of צלם?
Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] : You gave us english (which you said represented Hebrew) in other verses, in order to make a point regarding Genesis 1:27. but you never discussed Genesis 1:27 itself. This hebrew comes from the very verse we disagree about. Thus, I think it is an IMPORTANT verse to our disagreement. If you cannot make any counterpoint to Rashi or me, then I think by forfit, your simple claim that you are right will have to yield to the weight of objective data that is against you. (Unless you have some bit of data to offer against the claim you seem to disagree with).[/FONT][FONT="]
3)[/FONT][FONT="] Ingledsva[/FONT][FONT="] said : “I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW[/FONT][FONT="].”[/FONT][FONT="]
Yes you did. It was an unusually irrational and quite illogical thing to say.
Is there anyone who read the almost identical verses from BOTH Hebrew and Greek that sees this as a rational and logical point?
If they are virtually identical in all significants meanings, then if one is “WRONG”, the other is “WRONG”, since they say the same thing in all significant points in this verse..
[/FONT][FONT="]A)[/FONT][FONT="] FORUM MEMBERS : A test question for you : [/FONT][FONT="]
The Greek text tells us that : God rested on the sixth day.
The Hebrew text tells us that : God rested on the sixth day.
Which one is correct and which one is wrong? Hmmm? Which one?
Ingledsvas’ point is illogical and Irrational.
[/FONT][FONT="]B)[/FONT][FONT="] F[/FONT][FONT="]ORUM MEMBERS : Another test question[/FONT][FONT="]: [/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva said : “I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW.”
My quotes from Genesis came from the Septuagint (the LXX).
Test question is : WHO WROTE THE LXX, GREEKS OR JEWS?
Answer : If you guessed THE JEWS WROTE THE GREEK I QUOTED, THEN YOU ARE CORRECT.
However, my version is at least 1900 years closer to the Hebrew that existed in 300 b.c. than Ingledsvas English version. Which one seems more historically true to the era we are discussing?
[/FONT][FONT="]C)[/FONT][FONT="] FORUM MEMBERS, ANOTHER QUESTION ON THIS SUBJECT : Language[/FONT][FONT="]
Ingledsva said : I told you that YOU were WRONG because you used a GREEK translation of the HEBREW verse - rather then HEBREW.”
Which is more historically inconsistent? :
Clears' quoting from the ancient language the Christians used .
or
Ingledsvas quoted from a modern English version which none of the earliest Christian ever used. She did not offer any Hebrew text or characters to discuss. Not one in the entire thread, other than to quote me when I used them.
Clear quoted from an actual Jewish translation from Hebrew into the greek created 300 b.c. (LXX) Since his point was simply that the Early Christian tradition was that man was actually created in the image of God, he quoted from the book the Christian converts to this movement were most likely to have used.
Ingledsva has always, so far, quoted from modern English versions created at least 1600 years AFTER Jesus (a.d.) Ingledsva has not given us a single quote from actual Hebrew to examine.
I might remind forum readers, that NOT a SINGLE Christian convert to the Christian movement within the first 1000 years even HAD an English translation to read.
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