how is this written in hebrew scripts?
תַּהֲרֶה
... although the tav should be rendered with a dagesh which, for some reason, is not showing up.
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how is this written in hebrew scripts?
תַּהֲרֶה
... although the tav should be rendered with a dagesh which, for some reason, is not showing up.
What text?Hi Gnostic,
The text tells me that she went from not pregnant to pregnant so you can not say that I am speculating.
Jud 13:3 And the angel of the LORD appeared unto the woman, and said unto her, Behold now, thou art barren, and bearest not: but thou shalt conceive(Strong's #2029) , and bear a son.
4 Now therefore beware , I pray thee, and drink not wine nor strong drink, and eat not any unclean thing: 5 For, lo, thou are with child(Strong's #2030), and shall bear a son; and no razor shall come on his head: for the child shall be a Nazarite unto God from the womb: and he shall begin to deliver Israel out of the hand of the Philistines.
I suspect that it's an issue with how the Mac renders Hebrew. I have no trouble with word processors or email.showing up for me.
I suspect that it's an issue with how the Mac renders Hebrew. I have no trouble with word processors or email.
jayhawker soule said:תַּהֲרֶה
... although the tav should be rendered with a dagesh which, for some reason, is not showing up.
She'll likely do what she did with ...To sincerly:
Jayhawker has responded to your inquiry about the transliterated Hebrew word for "to conceive" or "shall conceive". He said tahareh, which I believed to be feminine (future tense) verb.
What do you have to say to tahareh?
Just perfect. You don't know where to look and you don't understand what you see.I see almah, but not "ha'almah"?????הָעַלְמָה הָרָה And you actually presume to explain Isaiah to the Jews. What a pitiful joke.
Yes. The verb הָרָה is 3rd person masculine past tense meaning something akin to "he impregated." The 'sign' was one of imminency.Thanks.
So harah in Isaiah 7:14 is הָרָה?
This הָרָה is could be translated as "pregnant" (adjective) or "expectant" (adjective) or paraphrase to "with child"? Correct?
Hi Jayhawker,Yes. The verb הָרָה is 3rd person masculine past tense meaning something akin to "he impregated." The 'sign' was one of imminency.
Hi Gnostic,What translation are using for your post #885 on Judges 13:3-5, Fletch?
The last several years I have been using New Jewish Publication Society (NJPS) -
Tanakh: The Holy Scriptures, 1985.
Another I tends to favored is New Revised Standard Version (NRSV).
However, I have read King James Version, the Good News Bible and a few others that I can't remember.
The KJV is the only version I have read, from cover-to-cover; this is when I was a teenager. Over the years, with the other translations, I only would read books that hold my interests, like from Genesis to 2 Kings, a few prophets, like Jeremiah and Isaiah, Job, and with the NT, the gospels and Revelation. These books I would have read at least 4 or 5 times, if not more. (I have lost how many times I have read Genesis and Exodus.)
The NetBible.org has great footnotes. Used the older version.Anyway, I'm asking you about what translation(s) you read, particularly the one you quoted on post 885, so I can compared them against others.
Hi Jayhawker,What text?
<yawn>Hi Jayhawker,
The mother was not the sign whatsoever.
<yawn>more preaching </yawn>
fletch said:The 1911 JPS is nothing more than a glorified KJV. I think they had hopes of doing one but WWI screwed everything up and they borrowed heavily from the KJV.
Is that a mistake? I mean treating allegory as "literal fact"?roger1440 said:I start from the premise virgins do not have children, dead people do not rise from the dead, bread does not magically appear from thin air to feed 5000 people and demons do not possess people. This being the case how then can these events be explained. I believe in all likelihood these stories started as allegory. As the stories left the time and place where they had originated they became to be interpreted as literal fact.
There are so many "literal" fundy Christian "facts." Jesus' birth and resurrection, if they happened, are the most important "facts" in human history. God came down in the form of his son and lived with us. He healed the sick, raised the dead, walked on water, at his death the sky turned dark and dead saints came out of their graves and walked around, and he ascended into heaven in front of witnesses. Were the witnesses lying to make Jesus bigger than life? Could be and why not? All other religions and cultures have their myths and miracles. Why are only the Christian ones the only true ones, and why is only the interpretation of the fundy Christians the only valid one? It's too important not to question it and see if it's true.Is that a mistake? I mean treating allegory as "literal fact"?