This is a spin-off of a conversation that started in the Should Scotland be Independent? thread. Here's where things left off:
While a monarch can choose whether or not to speak on any particular issue, a monarch who never, ever speaks to any issue is as rare as a unicorn.
Even in the case of Elizabeth, who generally doesn't express her political views publicly, she's been reported to have used her political influence in private talks with decision-makers. She is definitely not apolitical. She may be someone who attempts to shield her political influence from public scrutiny and accountability, but she definitely wields it when it suits her.
... and her son Charles, the heir to the throne, is reportedly much worse in this regard: BBC News - Prince Charles 'tried to influence government decisions'
I'm Canadian myself. While I wouldn't go so far as the Americans do by requiring their head of state to be born in the country he or she leads, I do think that a head of state ought to have some sort of real connection to any country he or she purports to be the head of. I personally consider it a point of national shame that my country has never had a head of state who's even lived here.
As for the monarchy as a "symbol of heritage", well, there are plenty of symbols of heritage. There's such a shared history between Canada and the UK, or Australia and the UK, or Scotland and England, that the links of heritage between them will be more than apparent regardless of the legal status of the monarchy.
Personally, I dislike the first-past-the-post system. I prefer proportional representational systems. Still, though, I recognize that while a first-past-the-post system has its problems, it's still leaps and bounds ahead of a system where the people have no voice at all.
Also, it seems to me that overall, your arguments present a false dichotomy: effectively, you're saying "I think democracy is flawed, therefore monarchy." Monarchy is not the default.
"Can be" and "are" are two different things. Personally, I think that the mere existence of a monarch is itself a political statement and the monarchy is a political tool. The monarch can be used to political ends either by the government or herself in a sort of "panda diplomacy", only with a human being instead of a marsupial: if you're some other country and you're in favour with the British crown, then you might just get the Queen or one of her relatives to come to your country so your elected representatives can pose next to her for pictures... but only if you're in favour with the British crown. The monarchy is a political tool.Well, it depends what is meant by politics. But monarchs can be above much partisan, party politics.I've yet to see a monarch of any country who is above politics.
While a monarch can choose whether or not to speak on any particular issue, a monarch who never, ever speaks to any issue is as rare as a unicorn.
Even in the case of Elizabeth, who generally doesn't express her political views publicly, she's been reported to have used her political influence in private talks with decision-makers. She is definitely not apolitical. She may be someone who attempts to shield her political influence from public scrutiny and accountability, but she definitely wields it when it suits her.
... and her son Charles, the heir to the throne, is reportedly much worse in this regard: BBC News - Prince Charles 'tried to influence government decisions'
I find this view strange, since this whole thing started as a discussion about Scottish independence and Scottish views. Should Scotland consider the Queen to be a Scottish symbol?To be honest, I'm not especially concerned with her role in any nation but England (despite being half-Australian and residing there temporarily), but I do think that in many of the Commonwealth nations she provides a symbol of their heritage in one form or other.I'm also unsure how a person who is the monarch of 16 different geographically and culturally diverse sovereign nations could be an "effective symbol of the heritage and rooted identity" of any one of them (unless you mean "rooted" in the Australian sense, maybe).
I'm Canadian myself. While I wouldn't go so far as the Americans do by requiring their head of state to be born in the country he or she leads, I do think that a head of state ought to have some sort of real connection to any country he or she purports to be the head of. I personally consider it a point of national shame that my country has never had a head of state who's even lived here.
As for the monarchy as a "symbol of heritage", well, there are plenty of symbols of heritage. There's such a shared history between Canada and the UK, or Australia and the UK, or Scotland and England, that the links of heritage between them will be more than apparent regardless of the legal status of the monarchy.
You say that you support government that's "good, free, and just", but then you say that consent is unnecessary. Exactly how could a government that doesn't respect the will of the people achieve the objectives you describe.I disagree that is where the legitimacy of government is derived from. I take the Aristotelian position that government is natural to man; it tends to emerge the moment his society advances to a certain size and level. Government should be good, free, and just. And it will need, to be so, to represent the interests of all individuals and groups within its territories, as far as possible. But consent, except in the broadest sense, is not necessary for a legitimate government, I would say. I do not worship King Numbers.The legitimacy of government is derived from the consent of the governed. Monarchy attempts to throw this principle away... even though most monarchists at least pay lip-service to the idea (for instance, by trotting out survey results about public support for the monarchy).
So now we've morphed from the idea of consent of the people to a narrow focus on simple majorities? I'm not sure what you're basing this leap on; it certainly isn't based on anything I said.Famously, exactly what consent of the governed means is fraught and far from clear. Why, for example, should 50% +1 be considered the people? Why is this minority not just as much the people?
Personally, I dislike the first-past-the-post system. I prefer proportional representational systems. Still, though, I recognize that while a first-past-the-post system has its problems, it's still leaps and bounds ahead of a system where the people have no voice at all.
Yes, there are advantages and disadvantages of both direct democracy, representative democracy, and their hybrids. None of this means that we should throw away the principle of democracy and start choosing our leaders based on bloodlines.How are people to express their consent? Our systems, for example, seem to have quite a gap between where the people get their say and where the decisions are made. In Britain, even leaving aside the vast role of the EU and special interests, we are governed by those voted for by a majority (or even minority) of MPs, who are voted for once every five years by the largest amount of voters who happen to turn out on election day. Of course, more representation of the opinion of the people will tend to make government less efficient, which goes to show that our systems do not really operate on consent of the governed as some divine principle that must always be upheld.
I'm sorry - how is this supposed to be relevant to what we're talking about?And, are the people to be represented in their natural and voluntary groups and associations, or only as individuals only? Seeing as most people are immersed in such associations and get much of their mundane identity from them.
Democracy is not incompatible with tradition. Any tradition that is supported by the people would be kept... and if a tradition isn't supported by the people, why impose it on them?Our societies, all societies, are the product of low growth over generations. What we enjoy was painstakingly bequeathed to us by our ancestors - if we destroy it, it could not rebuilt in centuries - and what our posterity will enjoy is what we give them in inheritance. As Burke put it, "[Society] is a partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a partnership in every virtue and in all perfection. As the ends of such a partnership cannot be obtained in many generations, it becomes a partnership not only between those who are living, but between those who are living, those who are dead, and those who are to be born." So, why is consent of the governed simply to be a fleeting, momentary majority. It seems a bad way to govern, to me.
Also, it seems to me that overall, your arguments present a false dichotomy: effectively, you're saying "I think democracy is flawed, therefore monarchy." Monarchy is not the default.