Cool. Thank you for your responses.
I have a few clarifying questions - if you don't mind.
No problem.
How does your opinion about God scan with what we know about the Priesthood and the Old Testament - particularly in regards to ancient Israel - that only certain Israelites were allowed to hold the Priesthood and it was based almost solely on ones ancestry?
I'll be honest with you; I'm not really sure. Perhaps Jane.Doe might. I hope that she'll weigh in on this if she does. I know that this is one of the reasons that was given throughout the years for the Priesthood ban, and it's possible that it was a legitimate reason. I'm just not much of an Old Testament scholar.
From what I understand - the LDS Church never denied anyone baptism or reception into the Church based on race or skin color.
That is true. It is also true that we never had segregated congregations. I also know that in my entire life (and I'm now 73), I was never taught in Church that skin color justified anyone treating Blacks cruelly. As a matter of fact, my grandfather, a very devout man and a bishop at that time, and grandmother (both born in the 1800s), made sure I understood this. They lived in a very racially diverse part of the city when I was growing up. There were several Hispanic and Black families on her street. I can clearly recall being at their house one afternoon and asking my grandma if I could go out and play in her front yard. She said, "Yes, but you be nice to the little coloreds." (People might be shocked by her use of the word "colored," but it was much more socially correct back in the early 1950s than other terms then being used.) I remember thinking, "Okay. Why wouldn't I be." I thought this because I'd never been taught that me being White and someone else being Black was an excuse for me to mistreat them.
Is it possible that this verse is in reference to salvation and membership into the Church and not necessarily the holding of the Priesthood and Temple admittance?
Because - and correct me if I am wrong - but doesn't the LDS Church teach that no one needs the Priesthood or Temple ordinances to be saved?
I suppose it's possible, however I am uncomfortable trying to justify a policy I have never been comfortable with by suggesting that this is the case. With regards to the idea of "salvation," that word actually means a number of different things to Latter-day Saints, depending upon the context in which it is used. First of all, there is salvation from the permanence of death. We believe that literally everyone who has ever lived will be resurrected, so obviously neither the Priesthood nor Temple ordinances are required in order for us to be raised from the dead and live again forever. (It may seem as if this goes without saying, but remember: the Jehovah's Witnesses believe that a significant number of people will ultimately simply be made to go out of existence entirely.)
Then there is the salvation that implies that a person will be received into Heaven. I'm relatively certain that Watchman would say that only the Celestial Kingdom is truly Heaven and that we believe only Latter-day Saints will receive this degree of glory. Everyone else, I believe I've heard him say, will be consigned to the two lower kingdoms of Heaven, which is just the Latter-day Saints way of sugar-coating Hell. This is not what is taught by the Church. The Terrestrial and Telestial Kingdoms are very much part of Heaven and no one who ends up in either of these will feel as if they're in Hell. Furthermore, entrance to the Celestial Kingdom is not going to be determined along denominational lines. A great many Latter-day Saints who believe it is, are going to be very surprised to find Buddhists, Jews, Muslims and Hindus there too. Some are going to be even more surprised to find themselves in one of the "lower" kingdoms.
When Mormons speak of salvation among themselves, they are most frequently referring to Exaltation in the Celestial Kingdom, aka "the fullness of salvation." This means being blessed to enjoy the same kind of existence God himself does. This is what we are striving for, and so when we suggest that certain people may not be "saved," we're implying (as if we had a say in the matter) that they may not be heirs to Celestial Glory. As all of this background information applies to your question, I would say that salvation is not dependent upon a person holding the priesthood. The "fullness of salvation," on the other hand, is.
And doesn't the LDS Church teach that it is possible for those who never held the Priesthood or worshipped in the Temple during mortality to receive those blessings of "exaltation" after the fact through "vicarious works" being performed for them?
Yes, absolutely.
I only ask because if you believe that God not allowing people to hold the Priesthood or enter the Temple is a "denial" of His goodness - then would you not also believe that the majority of ancient Israel - those not allowed to hold the Priesthood and enter the first and second Temples - were "denied" of His goodness?
Again, I'm not really sure how to respond to this question. I do believe that God is good. I don't understand all of the reasons for some of the things He chooses to do, and I definitely don't understand a great many of the things those in leadership positions choose to do. Still, I try to give people the benefit of the doubt, and I don't think I'm even in a position to "give God the benefit of the doubt." I just trust Him to make everything right in the end.
Yet many Church leaders - even First Presidencies - maintained that they would require a revelation from god to lift the ban - did they not?
Yes, a great many of them did. What you may not know is that any revelation is received first through the Prophet and must then also be given to the rest of the First Presidency and to the Quorum of the Twelve. In other words, all fifteen men must be in agreement in order for a new doctrine (or even policy) to be implemented. My personal feelings are that up until 1978, there may have been a couple of "hold-outs." Of course, I have no way of knowing this. I'm basing it solely on some of the comments they made over the years before the ban was lifted and before they died.
Why would they need revelation to lift a ban that wasn't itself revelatory?
Good question. I don't believe they did. But you must understand that the ban had been in place since the mid-1800s -- well over a century and a quarter. No one alive in 1978 had been alive back when Brigham Young instituted the ban. People as old as I am had grown up knowing that Blacks were denied the priesthood, and
assuming that this was God's will. Whenever we questioned it, people were all too ready to provide answers. The thing is, these answers were all just opinions. Most of us (IMO) never really thought to ask, "But where in the Doctrine and Covenants do we find the revelation establishing the ban in the first place?" By the mid-1900s, the fact that Blacks couldn't hold the Priesthood had become a cultural norm, accepted by the vast majority of Latter-day Saints as being God's will. It was so ingrained in our psyches that
we needed a revelation to justify lifting the ban. The lifting of the ban through an official declaration satisfied us whereas just a casual change in policy would not have done. I'm not saying that there wasn't a revelation telling the First Presidency and Quorum of the Twelve to make the Priesthood available to all worthy men, regardless of color or lineage. I believe there actually was. I just don't believe it came until all fifteen of these men were humble enough to go to the Lord and say, "What should we do? Is the time right?" They had to actually be open to being told, "Change your policy," in order for their prayers to be answered. And prior to that time, I don't believe all of them were.
Thank you for the link - I have read it before - I find the entire concept fascinating myself.
I must say, you know a
lot about The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, and you seem to have taken your information from legitimate sources. When did you start studying Mormonism and why?
The fact that the ban was not implemented until almost a decade after the murder of the Prophet Joseph Smith and the quote in the link from Brigham Young makes me believe that he did not implement the ban out of prejudice.
I don't know. It's hard to say. My main reason for disagreeing with you would be that typically something so monumental as implementing a policy denying such blessings to men of color is not something that would have just been gradually implemented without some sort of major announcement by the Prophet that the Lord had spoken and had revealed His will to us. That revelation would have been preserved as a section in the Doctrine & Covenants.
"President Young said that at some future day, black Church members would “have [all] the privilege and more” enjoyed by other members."
That's right, and it's a good argument for the possibility that the ban was not a prejudice-driven decision. On the other hand, it could still have been one that Brigham Young simply believed would benefit the Church as a whole at that time, given the political and cultural climate of the day.
I do not know the mind of God - but He has limited access to the Priesthood and Temple worship in the past - even to the chosen seed of Israel - so I don't personally see any direct contradiction between this ban and the one placed on ancient Israel.
You're right. There may not be one. I know that was the explanation I used for many years. It's just that a number of passages in the Doctrine & Covenants seem to imply that the Priesthood is a blessing that should be available to
all worthy men.
I just can never think that anything is ever as simple as it appears - but what do I know?
I'm with you. I certainly don't have all the answers. But like you, I am always open to learning whatever God wants to teach me.