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Pagan influence on Christianity

Remember 69%....

You didn't answer if the Arabs the 'very close brethren' of the Greek Cypriots who are almost identical to the Jews?

If they are there 'very close brethren' of the Greek Cypriots, then wouldn't they also be the 'very close brethren' of the Byzantine Greek Rum?

This shows people have certain disgusting political agendas they wish to promote and makes their data questionable at best.

I think you are being a bit paranoid (and clutching at any straw you can find to ignore the scientific evidence that contradicts your deeply held religious belief). I'm not sure how you can assert the authors of the study had 'disgusting political agendas' because of what someone unconnected with the study said in the comments section.

How does that work? Is every article on the internet that contains a reader's comment you don't like 'fake news'?

The author of the article actually made the comment:

"A short answer to your question is that most likely none of the current modern populations will resemble the ancestral Paleolithic metapopulation from which the current subgroups have emerged... In this work we have looked at recent times mostly less than 80 generations ago, and in that context the Sephardic Jews, Druze, Christians, Cypriots are probably a close representative of a pre-Islamic expansion Levant. However, you should keep in mind that the ancestral Levantine component (which we measure its divergence from Europeans and Middle Easterners) is found in all Levantines (even if with slightly different percentages). I think to answer your question and to know the genetic diversity of the Paleolithic Levantines, we should explore ancient DNA from the region."

As you can see, this contains no 'disgusting political agendas', but does confirm what I was saying about the Greek Cypriots and other Levantines being the real 'very close brethren' of the Jews, and that the Arabs were much more of a 'foreign' population before their imperial conquests.

Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up DNA. It's been interesting to see the genetic similarities in the Mediterranean populations, and that the Arabs were much further removed from them than I actually realised :)


No wonder they state on their site, "Maps were produced using a weighted average interpolating algorithm, and therefore should be used as a guide rather than a precise representation of the frequency distribution.

They don't say.

Well now you know you made a mistake by attributing 'disgusting political agendas' to the authors, rather than a reader you can take a more rational approach to this.

Maps are produced with a weighting algorithm. Populations don't all live inside nice simple boundaries, so on the 'heat maps' showing the locations of certain characteristics, they are only approximations. It is not referring to the graphics used in this thread as they are not maps.

So now that the author of the study has confirmed what I was saying, don't you agree that the 'very close brethren' of the Jews are actually the Greek Cypriots, and other non-Arab peoples who they live in close proximity to?
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
You didn't answer if the Arabs the 'very close brethren' of the Greek Cypriots who are almost identical to the Jews?

If they are there 'very close brethren' of the Greek Cypriots, then wouldn't they also be the 'very close brethren' of the Byzantine Greek Rum?
What relevance is this to the relationship between brothers Isaac and Ishmael pbut?

I think you are being a bit paranoid (and clutching at any straw you can find to ignore the scientific evidence that contradicts your deeply held religious belief). I'm not sure how you can assert the authors of the study had 'disgusting political agendas' because of what someone unconnected with the study said in the comments section.

How does that work? Is every article on the internet that contains a reader's comment you don't like 'fake news'?
Having clicked the contributor's name and taken to a part of their website site, I thought it was one of the Company's reps.

The author of the article actually made the comment:

"A short answer to your question is that most likely none of the current modern populations will resemble the ancestral Paleolithic metapopulation from which the current subgroups have emerged... In this work we have looked at recent times mostly less than 80 generations ago, and in that context the Sephardic Jews, Druze, Christians, Cypriots are probably a close representative of a pre-Islamic expansion Levant. However, you should keep in mind that the ancestral Levantine component (which we measure its divergence from Europeans and Middle Easterners) is found in all Levantines (even if with slightly different percentages). I think to answer your question and to know the genetic diversity of the Paleolithic Levantines, we should explore ancient DNA from the region."

As you can see, this contains no 'disgusting political agendas', but does confirm what I was saying about the Greek Cypriots and other Levantines being the real 'very close brethren' of the Jews, and that the Arabs were much more of a 'foreign' population before their imperial conquests.

Thanks for pointing this out, and for bringing up DNA. It's been interesting to see the genetic similarities in the Mediterranean populations, and that the Arabs were much further removed from them than I actually realised :)
No prob far removed as much as you like, but the fact remains some to this day are brethren to the Jews of the Levant.

Well now you know you made a mistake by attributing 'disgusting political agendas' to the authors, rather than a reader you can take a more rational approach to this.

Maps are produced with a weighting algorithm. Populations don't all live inside nice simple boundaries, so on the 'heat maps' showing the locations of certain characteristics, they are only approximations. It is not referring to the graphics used in this thread as they are not maps.

So now that the author of the study has confirmed what I was saying, don't you agree that the 'very close brethren' of the Jews are actually the Greek Cypriots, and other non-Arab peoples who they live in close proximity to?

The Saudis are still confirmed as brethren of the Jews at 69% according to the DNA study done. They are descendants of Abraham pbuh. Even if only 0.0001% of Saudis were closely related to Jews, that would be sufficient to infer they come from one of the Ishmaelite tribes.
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Muslims believe the genealogy to be true, Adam to Sheth, to Idris, to Nuh, to Ibrahim to Ismail, else why state he came from Ishmail.
Yes he comes from Ishmael's descendants, but time frame is anyone's guess. I don't accept timescales given in the Bible nor does Science.

So you believe in 'Noah', the impossible flood that drowned the earth, including infants in their cribs whom then forced to entire some 'Fire'

Quran 71:25 Because of their sins they were drowned, then made to enter a Fire. And they found they had no helpers in place of Allah
A localised flood yes.

Noah's Flood in the Torah is an analogy to the events in the Book of Joshua or Jeshua, that came to Canaan with Zerubabel in the 5th or 4th century BCE by Persian decree, Quran never mentions this, instead it uses that story to instil fear of 'Hell Fire' into people, a belief not found in the original story or philosophy.
There is evidence for a flood event in that region:
Evidence for a Flood | Science | Smithsonian
 

Magus

Active Member
Yes he comes from Ishmael's descendants, but time frame is anyone's guess. I don't accept timescales given in the Bible nor does Science.

A localised flood yes.

There is evidence for a flood event in that region:
Evidence for a Flood | Science | Smithsonian


If the average child bearing age is 30, then you still get a ridiculously small number , there no timescales in the Bible at all, the Biblical Chronology is based on assumptions (yet again the Quran authors inherits) , it is not a linear chronology , instead it's more anachronology , It never specifically stated 'Adam & Eve' are the first people, that's an allusion, indeed 'Adam & Eve' are duplicated later in the Book of Genesis as Esau and his wife, Aholibamah and later during the time of David and Solomon (a duplicate of Ishmael )

Noah never built a Boat, he built an 'Ark', the Hebrew word is 'Tebah' meaning 'Cube', same as 'Ka'ba , or Greek Kybutos, it was a temple, that's why animals went on the ark,. as sacrifices, as you see in Exodus, the Cube, Holy of the Holies or 'Zoroaster's Cube', was built in the 5-4th century BCE, finished in the 2nd year of Darius II i believe , thus these stores date no further then that.

7500 years, that is so far back, Ararat isn't just a mountain, but the name of an Armenian Kingdom between 9th - 6th Century BCE, and in 521-520 BCE the country was referred to as Urartu in Assyrian by Darius I and all the names listed after Noah's Flood, corresponds to the Persian Empire, that reached it's zenith when it conquered Urartu , that is why 'Persians aren't listed under Sons of Noah, for they where the victors.

A Flood happens when it rains too much, rivers raise and floods the plains, but this was always seen as a blessing, rather then a curse, cos when the water evaporates away, it leaves behind fertilised soil , same idea behind Baptism . Adam ( Edom ), Eve (Hivite) Cain (Qayin) , Nephilim (Hebron )are all names relating to Canaanites, so it's part of that Anti-Canaanite rhetoric in the Abrahamic stories.
 
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Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
If the average child bearing age is 30, then you still get a ridiculously small number , there no timescales in the Bible at all, the Biblical Chronology is based on assumptions (yet again the Quran authors inherits) , it is not a linear chronology , instead it's more anachronology , It never specifically stated 'Adam & Eve' are the first people, that's an allusion, indeed 'Adam & Eve' are duplicated later in the Book of Genesis as Esau and his wife, Aholibamah and later during the time of David and Solomon (a duplicate of Ishmael )

Noah never built a Boat, he built an 'Ark', the Hebrew word is 'Tebah' meaning 'Cube', same as 'Ka'ba , or Greek Kybutos, it was a temple, that's why animals went on the ark,. as sacrifices, as you see in Exodus, the Cube, Holy of the Holies or 'Zoroaster's Cube', was built in the 5-4th century BCE, finished in the 2nd year of Darius II i believe , thus these stores date no further then that.

7500 years, that is so far back, Ararat isn't just a mountain, but the name of an Armenian Kingdom between 9th - 6th Century BCE, and in 521-520 BCE the country was referred to as Urartu in Assyrian by Darius I and all the names listed after Noah's Flood, corresponds to the Persian Empire, that reached it's zenith when it conquered Urartu , that is why 'Persians aren't listed under Sons of Noah, for they where the victors.

A Flood happens when it rains too much, rivers raise and floods the plains, but this was always seen as a blessing, rather then a curse, cos when the water evaporates away, it leaves behind fertilised soil , same idea behind Baptism . Adam ( Edom ), Eve (Hivite) Cain (Qayin) , Nephilim (Hebron )are all names relating to Canaanites, so it's part of that Anti-Canaanite rhetoric in the Abrahamic stories.

All this shows me is the people who wrote the Bible had no hard facts on dates. Noah's flood happens, the survivors spread over the land, and some come into contact with Persians, who tell of the same story and that of Adam and Eve pbut in their literature. Persians would have travelled and done trade all over the Levant and Arabia. They came across the Kaaba and replicated a similar structure back home. Islamic tradition holds Adam pbuh built a early Kaaba, and later Abraham pbuh raised the foundations in Mecca.
 

Magus

Active Member
All this shows me is the people who wrote the Bible had no hard facts on dates. Noah's flood happens, the survivors spread over the land, and some come into contact with Persians, who tell of the same story and that of Adam and Eve pbut in their literature. Persians would have travelled and done trade all over the Levant and Arabia. They came across the Kaaba and replicated a similar structure back home. Islamic tradition holds Adam pbuh built a early Kaaba, and later Abraham pbuh raised the foundations in Mecca.


Floods happen, Noah's Flood did not happen , the literature of those stories is Hebrew, a language that was formed by the Persians when they introduced the policy of Imperial Aramaic , which is alluded in the Tower of Babel story, this is why Hebrew is written the way it is, in an Aramaic script, rather then in its original Phoenician alphabet, which means these stories are dated to the 5th Century BCE at the earliest, most likely written by tax collectors, whom likely created censuses, hence why so many place names are listed, which correlate with the Persian empire and its trade routes.

Abraham means 'Chief of the fathers' , a term referring to the Babylonian exiles, see Ezra 4:2 "Then they came to Zerubbabel, and to the chief of the fathers", Abraham came from Chaldea, a term that specifically refers to the Babylonian Empire of Nebuchadnezzar II ( Ezra 2) and his journey corresponds to the path taken by the exiles or Persian colonists, Babylon, up north, along the Euphrates, west towards Syria then south onto Judea.

Eden is located in Syria, known as Bit-Adini , in Carchemish near the Euphrates River, the Hebrew name 'Eve' means Hivite ( tent-dweller) , so she was a 'Canaanite wife', so its part of the rhetoric that is repeated throughout the scriptures,

Ezra 9:2
For they have taken of their daughters for themselves, and for their sons: so that the holy seed have mingled themselves with the people of those land

Genesis 28:1
And Isaac called Jacob, and blessed him, and charged him, and said unto him, Thou shalt not take a wife of the daughters of Canaan.

Esau, or Edom or Adam, did take a Canaanite / Hivite wife, hence his 'Fall'

Then there is the story of David' Mother, she is never named cos of her 'Sin', She had an affair with King Nahash (means Serpent), the King of Ammon. ( Eve was David's Mother).

This is because marriage with someone who is non Zoroastrian is not accepted by Zoroastrians, neither are children from a mixed marriage. Still to this day, a person cannot convert to Zoroastrianism, and the only way a person can become a Zoroastrian is to be born with 2 Zoroastrian parents.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Again... you ignored the two Jewish citations I gave. Ignoring the citations doesn't validate your position.

The citation does not validate any position. I already addressed the problems with your citation

If it isn't a literal depiction, the allegorical position would support the position of man falling from original purpose.

No

We know that man was expelled. We know that a curse was given because Adam and Eve rebelled (or whatever other word you want to use)...

No we do not know that.


At this point, for you to say that there is no Jewish thought on the fall of man would be ludicrous. [/quote]

I never said that there was NO Jewish thought on the fall of man.

All Jewish thought understands (allegorically or historically) that "fallen man" was ejected out of the Garden.

No.
 

Rival

Diex Aie
Staff member
Premium Member
Still to this day, a person cannot convert to Zoroastrianism,

As an ex-Zoroastrian I can say this is not true. Only Parsis practice this and it is not a part of the Zoroastrian doctrine.
 

Magus

Active Member
Many Jews today marry outside their religion too, that's down to modern secularism.

The Parsis (the Persians) arrived in India to escape Arab persecution
and they didn't intermarry.

The Denkard, 10th-century compendium of the Mazdaen Zoroastrian beliefs also discourages 'mixing of seed'

This was the belief of the Persian colonists in Ezra 2 that arrived in Canaan, later named Pharisees (the Persians) or Essene (saoshyant) and Sadducee ( Zoro-Ezra was Zadok the Priest 1 Chronicles 6:15 )

Ezra was the one that ascribed the Torah Mesha or Ahura Mazda or Aaron Moses, it's all Persian.
 

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
The citation does not validate any position. I already addressed the problems with your citation

No

No we do not know that.


I never said that there was NO Jewish thought on the fall of man.

No.
Now you sound more like a flat-earther.
 
What relevance is this to the relationship between brothers Isaac and Ishmael pbut?

I'm just wondering of you consider the Greeks, Italians, Persians, etc. to be Abraham'c children too, seeing as they are much closer brethren than the Arabs are.

Were the wars between the Arabs and Rum really an inter-family dispute? ;)

The Saudis are still confirmed as brethren of the Jews at 69% according to the DNA study done. They are descendants of Abraham pbuh. Even if only 0.0001% of Saudis were closely related to Jews, that would be sufficient to infer they come from one of the Ishmaelite tribes.

It doesn't show they are 'closely related', unless you consider sharing some common ancestors 10,000 years ago makes you 'closely related'. People don't go on about how closely the Saudis are related to the Greeks after all.

What it shows is the Saudis, along with the Greeks, Moroccans, Armenians, Italians, Persians, Turks, Hungarians, Egyptians, French, Basques, Spaniards, Greeks, Cypriots and countless others from North Africa, to the Balkans to Western Europe all shared some common ancestry in the neolithic period. After this, while many of these groups continued to share a common genetic makeup, the Arabs developed in a significantly different direction and by the age of Arab imperialism, they basically constituted a different people when compared to the Mediterranean civilisation that they colonised.

Given that their shared ancestry in the neolitihic was long before Abraham was supposed to have lived, and that you offer no evidence for him being an actual historical figure, and that countless others who share this genetic history to a much greater extent are not considered to be 'children of Abraham' it is not enough to infer anything whatsoever as per your claims. This is just your wishful thinking and confirmation bias at play.
 
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Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I'm just wondering of you consider the Greeks, Italians, Persians, etc. to be Abraham'c children too, seeing as they are much closer brethren than the Arabs are.
I would have no problem if they were closely related.

It doesn't show they are 'closely related', unless you consider sharing some common ancestors 10,000 years ago makes you 'closely related'. People don't go on about how closely the Saudis are related to the Greeks after all.
We've already established the people of the Levant are related by DNA.

What it shows is the Saudis, along with the Greeks, Moroccans, Armenians, Italians, Persians, Turks, Hungarians, Egyptians, French, Basques, Spaniards, Greeks, Cypriots and countless others from North Africa, to the Balkans to Western Europe all shared some common ancestry in the neolithic period. After this, while many of these groups continued to share a common genetic makeup, the Arabs developed in a significantly different direction and by the age of Arab imperialism, they basically constituted a different people when compared to the Mediterranean civilisation that they colonised.
Yes the data shows people from Africa and elsewhere migrated to Arabia. People from the Levant were also living there, specifically in Yemen, around Mecca and Medina.

Given that their shared ancestry in the neolitihic was long before Abraham was supposed to have lived, and that you offer no evidence for him being an actual historical figure, and that countless others who share this genetic history to a much greater extent are not considered to be 'children of Abraham' it is not enough to infer anything whatsoever as per your claims. This is just your wishful thinking and confirmation bias at play.
I never met Abraham pbuh, so know as much about him as anyone else does. In the Bible we are told he had 2 sons, one stayed in the Levant and the other inhabited Arabia. Where those people originally came from, is of no concern to me. History shows a Prophet from a descendant of the Arabian son was sent to their Cousins. Today the descendants of that Arabian Prophet, some of whom live in the Levant are shown to be closely related to their Jewish Cousins. This is fact, not wishful thinking.
 
I would have no problem if they were closely related.

Arabs are 'close brethren' of Sephardi Jews, but 'are not closely related' to Greek Cypriots despite the fact that they have almost the same profile :D


Screen_Shot_2017-07-14_at_23.55.27.png

Screen_Shot_2017-07-14_at_23.55.47.png


Just to recap: You claim Saudis and Jews are 'close brethren' but that Greek Cypriots and Jews/Saudis 'are not closely related' :D

You are being blinded by your theological assumptions, and inability to look beyond modern geopolitical identities.

I was reading something recently about how cognitive dissonance can cause people to lose the ability to interpret things they can see with their own eyes (in that case graphs). Seems like you are demonstrating this argument has substance.

Anyway, seeing as your mind is already made up, we'll agree to disagree. I'll just let the images speak for themselves.

History shows a Prophet from a descendant of the Arabian son was sent to their Cousins.

You are confusing theology with history. In terms of history, it is about as authoritative as the story of Romulus and Remus. History shows, in the 7th C, a man from Arabia was considered as a prophet. The rest comes from theology.

History doesn't show that the Arabs were descended from Ishmael or that he even existed. As far as I can tell (although I haven't looked all that much) it also doesn't show that anyone considered the 'Arabs' to be Ishmaelites much before the 1st C.

I was looking for some evidence about when the Arabs in general started to be associated with the Ishmaelites, so I'm willing to reconsider this if you can find any evidence earlier than Josephus. The tradition doesn't seem to be particularly ancient though.

We have seen that there is no historical basis to the tradition of associating the Ishmaelites with the Arabs, which is founded merely on the ethnological midrash in Gen. 25. But since it existed in the Bible, the idea of such an association became established in Jewish tradition and, consequently, among those non-Jewish circles which in some way drew upon Jewish traditions.
"ISHMAEL" AND "ARAB(S)":
A TRANSFORMATION OF ETHNOLOGICAL TERMS
Journal of Near Eastern Studies vol 35 no 4
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
History doesn't show that the Arabs were descended from Ishmael or that he even existed. As far as I can tell (although I haven't looked all that much) it also doesn't show that anyone considered the 'Arabs' to be Ishmaelites much before the 1st C.

I was looking for some evidence about when the Arabs in general started to be associated with the Ishmaelites, so I'm willing to reconsider this if you can find any evidence earlier than Josephus. The tradition doesn't seem to be particularly ancient though.

We have seen that there is no historical basis to the tradition of associating the Ishmaelites with the Arabs, which is founded merely on the ethnological midrash in Gen. 25. But since it existed in the Bible, the idea of such an association became established in Jewish tradition and, consequently, among those non-Jewish circles which in some way drew upon Jewish traditions.
"ISHMAEL" AND "ARAB(S)":
A TRANSFORMATION OF ETHNOLOGICAL TERMS
Journal of Near Eastern Studies vol 35 no 4

In a book called
The Land of Israel as a Political Concept in Hasmonean Literature: Recourse by Doron Mendels on pages 145-148

Your quote is cited as follows:

4 Wrongly, of course; cf. Eph’al’s conclusion about the identification: “We have seen that there is no historical basis to the tradition of associating the Ishmaclites with the Arabs, which is founded merely on the ethnological midrash in Gen 25. But since it existed in the Bible, the idea of such an association became established in Jewish tradition and, consequently, among these non-Jewish circles which in some way drew upon Jewish traditions.”

The author decides to address the History of the Arabs of the 2nd Century B.C.

In recent years two almost complementary works on the Arabs of ancient times have appeared. One, by
I. Eph'al, reaches the year 450 B
.C.; the other, by G.W. Bowersock goes on to Roman times’.
Whereas Bowersock surveys the history of the Arabs from circa 300 B.C. to the first century B.C. in the second chapter of his book, I. Eph’al ingeniously elaborates upon the problem of the identification
between Arabs and Ishmaelites in the literature of the ancient Near East from Assyrian times to josephus, in an article which appeared in 1976 (2). However, neither author discussed the Arabs and lshmaelites
in the so-called intertestamental literature; in this appendix I hope to fill in this gap concerning the second century B.C.


I should first like to emphasize that ‘Arabs’ is a term used by the sources in Hellenistic times to denote a great variety of tribes:

Nabateans, Itureans, Amreans, etc.3; these were identified by Jewish as well as by non-Jewish sources as ‘Ishmaelites’4. We shall see that this particular identification also exists in the Jewish literature of the Hasmonean period. As already mentioned, this literature was composed during the Hasmonean wars. During the first decades of these wars the Jews had a common cause with most of the Arab tribes around them, namely in the struggle against the Seleucids. However, towards the end of the century, when Aristobulus I and Alexander Jannaeus expanded towards ‘Arab’ territories, such as the upper Galilee, and the Golan and TransJordan, we hear of increasing clashes between the Jews and the Nabateans, called ‘Arabs’ by the ancient sources5. These military confrontations seem to have become very fierce in the nineties of the first century B.C.6 The different perceptions of the Arabs resulting from this development, can, I believe, be seen in the literature of the time.

During the sixties of the second century B.C., we hear from contemporary sources that good relations existed between certain Arab tribes and the Jews, but that with others relations were hostile (IMacc 9:35—42); at a certain stage we even hear of a war between Judas Maccabeus and the Arabs, which ended in a peace treaty concluded only with reluctance (2Macc 12: 10ff). This state of affairs is reflected in three compositions written in the sixties. On the one hand, a writer like Eupolemus who expresses the views of Judas’s circles, thinks in terms of getting back to the territorial dimension of David’s times. However, he includes the Itureans, Nabateans and Nabdeans (all Arab tribes according to Gen 25:131)8 among David’s conquests: this, of course, is unbiblical. This description of David’s conquests should be viewed as wishful thinking on Eupolemus’ behalf, combined with David’s actual conquests and some contemporary concepts9. Moreover, according to Eupolemus it was David who built “ships in Elana (Eilat), a city of Arabia ...“. Whereas Eupolemus depicts David as the king who subdued the Nabateans and Nabdeans, by Solomon’s reign Eupolemus makes these peoples disappear, and instead, the region ‘Arabia’ becomes a part of the Jewish kingdom equal to Samaria, Galilee, etc. ‘Arabia’ even sends meat supplies to the builders of the Jerusalem Temple.

Alongside this view of the subjugation of the Arabs, we find already during the sixties of the second century BC. the growing idea of disengagement from them. Daniel 11:41 (written in the sixties) omits them altogether when mentioning the foes of the Jews circa 170. Even more remarkable is another piece composed in the sixties:

lEnoch 85—90. There the Arab (Ishmael) is depicted as a “wild a ss” (based on Gen 16:12)10; however, among the many animals who devour the people of Israel, the Arabs (wild asses) are not mentioned. On the contrary, when Moses escapes to Midian he goes directly to the “wild asses” who rescue him, just as they rescue Joseph in another document of the period (1 Enoch 89:16). This identification of Midian with the Arabs contrasts with the Bible where Midian is not an Ishmaelite but a descendant of Keturah (Gen 25:1—2).

Unfortunately we do not possess any literary evidence concerning the Arabs until John Hyrcanus ¡‘s reign, except perhaps Judith 2: 23—25. Judith was written in Palestine during the Persian era, but became popular, and was possibly re-edited, during the forties and thirties of the second century B.C.” Judith 2:23—25 explicitly identifies the Arabs with Ishmael saying: “And he (Holophernes) took his whole army, his infantry and cavalry and chariots, and moved into the mountainous country and ravaged Put and Lud and plundered all the sons of Rassis and the sons of Ishmael who lived along the desert, to the south of the country of Cheleon ...“ Although this war may be taken from Babylonian history’2, it may reflect views about the Arabs prevalent in the thirties of the second century B.C.

From John Hyrcanusl’s reign evidence abounds: Jubilees, composed circa 125 B.C., and the Testaments of the Twelve Patriarchs from around 108/7 B.C.’3 In Jubilees, which is a midrash on Genesis through Exodus 12, we find an intriguing attitude to Ishmael and the Arabs. In 20:12—13, referring to Ishmael’s departure from Abraham (based on Gen 25), it is said, in contradistinction to the Bible: “And Ishmael and his sons and the sons of Keturah and their sons went together and they dwelt from Paran to the entrance to Babylon in all
the land which faces the east opposite the desert. And these mixed with each other, and they are called Arabs or Ishmaelites.” Through out Jubilees it is emphasized that the Arabs are the descendants of Ishmael, which makes them close relatives of the Jews. The actual present relations between Jews and Arabs are legitimized because of the common past of both ‘nations’.

The Land of Israel as a Political Concept in Hasmonean Literature

We also read on What does the Bible say about Muslims/Islam? | Bibleinfo.com

Although the Bible doesn't specifically say when Islam began, let's explore the following. The descendants of Ishmael and the other sons of Abraham through Keturah were given the eastern country and are referred to as the children or people of the east. They are the progenitors of the Arabs. Muhammad, the prophet of Islam, traces the starting of his lineage back to Ishmael through his first born son, Nebaioth. It's in the Bible, the Torah, Genesis 25:6,12-18, RSV. “But to the sons of his concubines Abraham gave gifts, and while he was still living he sent them away from his son Isaac, eastward to the east country." "These are the descendants of Ishmael, Abraham's son, whom Hagar the Egyptian, Sarah's maid, bore to Abraham. These are the names of the sons of Ishmael, named in the order of their birth: Nebaioth, the first-born of Ishmael; and Kedar, Adbeel, Mibsam, Mishma, Dumah, Massa, Hadad, Tema, Jetur, Naphish, and Kedemah.

These are the sons of Ishmael and these are their names, by their villages and by their encampments, twelve princes according to their tribes. (These are the years of the life of Ishmael, a hundred and thirty-seven years; he breathed his last and died, and was gathered to his kindred.) They dwelt from Havilah to Shur, which is opposite Egypt in the direction of Assyria; he settled over against all his people.” The areas noted here in verse 18 are located in Central and Northern Arabia.
 

Magus

Active Member
The Bible says nothing about Muslims or Islam and Arabs are hardly ever mentioned in the Old Testament and it is common in Hellenistic mythology to have mythical forefathers , for example
Hellen is the ancestor of the Greek, Phoenix, ancestor of the Phoenicians, Perseus the Persians, Aegyptus the Egyptians, but these individuals never existed, it's mythology, same is true for the Bible, Japheth, son of Noah, is from Greek mythology, Iapetus

Cyrus had royal Median blood from Astages, his grandfather (the last king of Media). Arabs, Egyptians, Greeks and Jews all called the Persians Medes (Madai). They are descendants of Japheth who is Iapetos, the father of the Greeks, who were also Indo-Europeans. Madai’s Japhethic descent is based on the Persian royal court’s reworking of the Athenian Greek Medus myth, used by Datis, Darius I’s Median general, in 490 BC to justify the invasion of Greece. The Persian administrators used the same tale in Genesis, hinting at it being composed in the 400s BC.
 
The author decides to address the History of the Arabs of the 2nd Century B.C.

Thanks for that. It is quite an opaque area of history about which it is difficult to draw very definite conclusions.

The issue is complicated by the fact that, as your source notes,: "‘Arabs’ is a term used by the sources in Hellenistic times to denote a great variety of tribes"

We know that Jews associated individual tribes with 'Ishmaelites' (according to @Tumah Northern ones). I noted earlier in the thread about some writers differentiating 'Saracens' (North) from 'Arabs' (further South). But there is no real consistent use of the term Arab as different people use it to mean different things.

Also it was not a designation that people used to refer to themselves, it was only a label that other people used to describe various peoples. So 'Arabs as Ishmaelites' is further complicated by the fact that there weren't any self-identified Arabs. Of course, this doesn't rule out individual tribes having this identity, but this becomes more speculative due to lack of evidence.

On 'Arabs':

A reference to Maʿadd in the funerary monument erected in 328 CE at al-Namāra in southern Syria for a king named Imruʾ al-Qays also informs our analysis. The inscription is difficult to translate since it was written in archaic Arabic and in Nabataean script,68 but it does identify Imruʾ alQays as ‘King of the Arabs’ (malik al-ʿarab) and ‘King of Maʿadd’ (malik maʿadd).69 The inscription appears to be the first Arabic-language reference to an individual calling himself an Arab, but drawing conclusions about fourth-century Arab ethnogenesis from the al-Namāra epitaph is difficult since the interpretation of the king’s titles is contested. Most scholars shy away from reading the inscription’s ‘Arabs’ as referring to a pan-Arabian community.70 Retsö notes the epithet ‘King of the Arabs’ was an old Imperial Roman honorific granted to leaders on the Syrian/Arabian frontier (and by the second century CE perhaps specifically for rulers on the borders of Rome’s Provincia Arabia), and the same honorific was used by Persians for their Beth ʿArbāyē, suggesting the term’s origins in Hellenistic geographical notions of Arabia as a place, not a specific community or ethnos.71 The title thus asserts Imruʾ al-Qays’ sovereignty over a place known to the Romans as Arabia, not sovereignty over the people whom we know as Arabs. The broader context of the al-Namāra inscription’s ‘Arabs’ is also telling: after the fourth century, there is no further reference to ‘King of the Arabs’ in Greek or Syriac prose, nor in pre-Islamic inscriptions, and Latin and Greek records ceased referring to ‘Arabs’ altogether.

Imagining the Arabs - Peter Webb p76

In the Western Roman Empire, the Romans paid Germanic 'barbarians' to act as mercenaries and protect the borders and bestowed titles and honours on them. This was seen as the best way to keep the borders safe as your loyal tribe would keep the others out instead of fighting you instead.

This worked well for a time, but the favoured tribes grew richer, stronger and more powerful. Their 'elites' became more Romanised, and even served as officers in the Roman military, Arminius who lead the destruction of Varus' legions in the Battle of Teutoberg Forrest is the most famous. Arminius (or Herman) was later seen by German historians as the 'father' of the German people.

'Barbarian' tribes tended to be fractious, poorly disciplined and prone to fighting each other, but 'Romanisation' led to them previous disparate tribes forming larger groups, and becoming better equipped and disciplined. Eventually, the 'servants' realised they could defeat the 'masters' and it was the beginning of the end for the Western Roman Empire.

In Arabia, the Romans and Persians had been using the same system, most famously with the Ghassanids and the Lahkmids. There was also a spread of monotheism throughout the peninsula cumulating in the war between Dhu Nawas' Himyar Jews (backed by Persia) and Abraha's Axumite Christians (backed by Rome) several decades before the claimed birthdate of Muhammad (although early Islamic history is very confused about in what year this happened).

I believe these shaped a growing sense of identity (part of which included being Ishmaelites) and began a gradual 'unification' process based around an identity as 'Arabs' that probably spanned 1 or 2 centuries and was mostly fully formed by the late 7th C or early 8th after being accelerated by the conquests. The rise of (what would later become known as) Islam seems to fit well into this historical context.

Thoughts?
 

Muslim-UK

Well-Known Member
Premium Member

Thanks for that. It is quite an opaque area of history about which it is difficult to draw very definite conclusions.

The issue is complicated by the fact that, as your source notes,: "‘Arabs’ is a term used by the sources in Hellenistic times to denote a great variety of tribes"

We know that Jews associated individual tribes with 'Ishmaelites' (according to @Tumah Northern ones). I noted earlier in the thread about some writers differentiating 'Saracens' (North) from 'Arabs' (further South). But there is no real consistent use of the term Arab as different people use it to mean different things.

Also it was not a designation that people used to refer to themselves, it was only a label that other people used to describe various peoples. So 'Arabs as Ishmaelites' is further complicated by the fact that there weren't any self-identified Arabs. Of course, this doesn't rule out individual tribes having this identity, but this becomes more speculative due to lack of evidence.

On 'Arabs':

A reference to Maʿadd in the funerary monument erected in 328 CE at al-Namāra in southern Syria for a king named Imruʾ al-Qays also informs our analysis. The inscription is difficult to translate since it was written in archaic Arabic and in Nabataean script,68 but it does identify Imruʾ alQays as ‘King of the Arabs’ (malik al-ʿarab) and ‘King of Maʿadd’ (malik maʿadd).69 The inscription appears to be the first Arabic-language reference to an individual calling himself an Arab, but drawing conclusions about fourth-century Arab ethnogenesis from the al-Namāra epitaph is difficult since the interpretation of the king’s titles is contested. Most scholars shy away from reading the inscription’s ‘Arabs’ as referring to a pan-Arabian community.70 Retsö notes the epithet ‘King of the Arabs’ was an old Imperial Roman honorific granted to leaders on the Syrian/Arabian frontier (and by the second century CE perhaps specifically for rulers on the borders of Rome’s Provincia Arabia), and the same honorific was used by Persians for their Beth ʿArbāyē, suggesting the term’s origins in Hellenistic geographical notions of Arabia as a place, not a specific community or ethnos.71 The title thus asserts Imruʾ al-Qays’ sovereignty over a place known to the Romans as Arabia, not sovereignty over the people whom we know as Arabs. The broader context of the al-Namāra inscription’s ‘Arabs’ is also telling: after the fourth century, there is no further reference to ‘King of the Arabs’ in Greek or Syriac prose, nor in pre-Islamic inscriptions, and Latin and Greek records ceased referring to ‘Arabs’ altogether.

Imagining the Arabs - Peter Webb p76

In the Western Roman Empire, the Romans paid Germanic 'barbarians' to act as mercenaries and protect the borders and bestowed titles and honours on them. This was seen as the best way to keep the borders safe as your loyal tribe would keep the others out instead of fighting you instead.

This worked well for a time, but the favoured tribes grew richer, stronger and more powerful. Their 'elites' became more Romanised, and even served as officers in the Roman military, Arminius who lead the destruction of Varus' legions in the Battle of Teutoberg Forrest is the most famous. Arminius (or Herman) was later seen by German historians as the 'father' of the German people.

'Barbarian' tribes tended to be fractious, poorly disciplined and prone to fighting each other, but 'Romanisation' led to them previous disparate tribes forming larger groups, and becoming better equipped and disciplined. Eventually, the 'servants' realised they could defeat the 'masters' and it was the beginning of the end for the Western Roman Empire.

In Arabia, the Romans and Persians had been using the same system, most famously with the Ghassanids and the Lahkmids. There was also a spread of monotheism throughout the peninsula cumulating in the war between Dhu Nawas' Himyar Jews (backed by Persia) and Abraha's Axumite Christians (backed by Rome) several decades before the claimed birthdate of Muhammad (although early Islamic history is very confused about in what year this happened).

I believe these shaped a growing sense of identity (part of which included being Ishmaelites) and began a gradual 'unification' process based around an identity as 'Arabs' that probably spanned 1 or 2 centuries and was mostly fully formed by the late 7th C or early 8th after being accelerated by the conquests. The rise of (what would later become known as) Islam seems to fit well into this historical context.

Thoughts?

In the book I linked, it mentions a Jewish Scripture Midrash on Genesis called the Book of Jubilees, dated to around 100 B.C.

JUBILEES 17
Abraham made a great banquet for Yitschaq was weaned
1 And in the first year of the fifth week Yitschaq was weaned in this jubilee, [1982 A.M.] and Abraham made a great banquet in the third month, on the day his son Yitschaq was weaned.
2 And Ishmael, the son of Hagar, the Egyptian, was before the face of Abraham, his father, in his place, and Abraham rejoiced and blessed YAHWEH because he had seen his sons and had not died childless.
3 And he remembered the words which He had spoken to him on the day on which Lot had parted from him, and he rejoiced because YAHWEH had given him seed upon the earth to inherit the earth, and he blessed with all his mouth the Creator of all things.
4 And Sarah saw Ishmael playing and dancing, and Abraham rejoicing with great joy, and she became jealous of Ishmael and said to Abraham, 'Cast out
this bondwoman and her son; for the son of this bondwoman will not be heir with my son, Yitschaq.'
5 And the thing was grievous in Abraham's sight, because of his maidservant and because of his son, that he should drive them from him.
6 And YAHWEH said to Abraham 'Let it not be grievous in your sight, because of the child and because of the bondwoman; in all that Sarah has said to you, listen to her words and do them; for in Yitschaq shall your name and seed be called.
7 But as for the son of this bondwoman I will make him a great nation, because he is of your seed.'

JUBILEES 20
Abraham called all his sons and commanded them to observe the way of YAHWEH
1 And in the forty-second jubilee, in the first year of the seventh week, Abraham called Ishmael, [2052 (2045?) A.M.] 2 and his twelve sons, and Yitschaq and his two sons, and the six sons of Keturah, and their sons.
2 And he commanded them that they should observe the way of YAHWEH; that they should work righteousness, and love each his neighbour, and act on this manner amongst all men; that they should each so walk with regard to them as to do just judgment and righteousness on the earth.
3 That they should circumcise their sons, according to the covenant which He had made with them, and not deviate to the right hand or the left of all the paths which YAHWEH had commanded us; and that we should keep ourselves from all fornication and uncleanness, and renounce from amongst us all fornication and uncleanness.

11 And he gave to Ishmael and to his sons, and to the sons of Keturah, gifts, and sent them away from Yitschaq his son, and he gave everything to Yitschaq his son.
12 And Ishmael and his sons, and the sons of Keturah and their sons, went together and dwelt from Paran to the entering in of Babylon in all the land which is towards the East facing the desert.
13 And these mingled with each other, and their name was called Arabs, and Ishmaelites.

They also mingled with their cousins, so in antiquity were considered by Abraham pbuh to be brethren.

https://www.yahwehsword.org/yahwehswordarchives/book_of_jubilees/book-jubilees-download.pdf
 
And Ishmael and his sons, and the sons of Keturah and their sons, went together and dwelt from Paran to the entering in of Babylon in all the land which is towards the East facing the desert.
13 And these mingled with each other, and their name was called Arabs, and Ishmaelites.

If Paran was in the Sinai, then across to Bablyon is all just North Arabia.

Something else I noticed when I was reading about this:

Genesis 37:25 And they sit down to eat bread, and they lift up their eyes, and look, and lo, a company of Ishmaelites coming from Gilead [modern day Jordan], and their camels bearing spices, and balm, and myrrh, going to take [them] down to Egypt.


28 And Midianite merchantmen pass by and they draw out and bring up Joseph out of the pit, and sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites for twenty silverlings, and they bring Joseph into Egypt.


So Midianites (from Keturah) are considered different from Ishmaelites. The Ishmaelites are from the North, while the Midianites come from the Northern Hijaz. So it seems in the earliest traditions, the Hijaz was more associated with the children of Keturah, rather than Ishmael which is what Tumah said best fits the Jewish narrative.

So if we accept your source as accurate and that by around the1st C BC, some people were associating a group called 'Arabs' with Ishmaelites.

We know that people used the term Arab, but it didn't mean what it does today - the whole of the people of the Arabian peninsula (and the linguistic group of Arabic speakers). For example, much later than this we still have people differentiating 'Arabs' and 'Saracens' and dividing the peninsula into 3 distinct peoples.

It's worth remembering that at this point identities were less geographically bound than they are today. The Roman Empire, for example, was fluid and grew and shrank according to victories and losses. Anyone from within the Empire might become a 'Roman', and while it is now seen as 'European', the Byzantine Empire was mostly based in modern day Turkey, the Balkans and the Middle East. There were no Europeans, Africans or Americans at this point, there weren't Germans, Dutch and Russians either

It was also a term only used by other people, never the Arabs themselves, so it was not an identity. It was just a label applied by 'foreigners'.

The 2 question I find most interesting are:

When did the common sense of an identity as 'Arabs' start to develop? (my guess is a process that began around about the time of Muhammad, starting several decades before him as a result of gradual 'Romanisation' and being mostly complete within 100 years ,mostly as a consequence of Empire building)
When did this common sense of identity become linked with all Arabs being Ishmaelites, rather than just some of the Northern tribes? (My guess is it started to develop with the greater spread of Abrahamic monotheism among the Arabs in the centuries leading up to the time of Muhammad, and was solidified by the rise of Islam)

Thoughts on these?
 
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