Prophet Jesus PBUH commanded people to be Muslim

[leibowde84]

By Him in whose Hands is my Soul, the command of Prophet Jesus pbuh reminds me of Noble Quran


133. Or were you witnesses when death approached Ya'qub (Jacob)? When he said unto his sons, "What will you worship after me?" They said, "We shall worship your Ilah (God - Allah), the Ilah (God) of your fathers, Ibrahim (Abraham), Isma'il (Ishmael), Ishaque (Isaac), One Ilah(God), and to Him we submit (in Islam)."

And


But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

Now look what Bible says:





Ein talmeed na'leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she'MUSHLAM yihyeh k'rabbo."

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Evidence from the English translation of Luke 6:40 that further prove that the word 'Muslim' was used by Jesus:

Luke 6:40 (KJV) The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (Darby)
The disciple is not above his teacher, but every one that is perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (Young's Literal Translation)
A disciple is not above his teacher, but every one perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (21st Century King James Version)
The disciple is not above his master, but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (American Standard Version)
The disciple is not above his teacher: but every one when he is perfected shall be as his teacher.



So to be like the teacher, we should become Mushlams/Muslims.

Islam and the classifying term "muslim" didn't exist back then, and Islam was an offshoot of Judaism/Christianity, so of course God (or "Allah" in Arabic) would be the God of Abraham. And, when looking at the English translations, there is not a single thing that would point to Jesus being a Muslim. That along with the fact that the concept didn't even exist at that point makes this entire thread a bit silly.

 

[Servant_of_the_One1]

Muslims claim that all the prophets were Muslims. However, there is no archaeological or scriptural evidence to support this claim. They say that the writings of the prophets do not match the teachings of Islam because the Old Testament and the New Testament have been corrupted. This is patently false. The Red Sea scrolls prove without shadow of a doubt that the Old Testament has not been corrupted. So, where are all the original and uncorrupted writings of the prophets? Where is the archaeological evidence for a pre-Christian Islam? Where are the Mosques from the time of Abraham? Where is the pre-7th-century evidence for Islam in Mecca? There is nothing of this because Islam begun in the 7th century. This is patently obvious. For example, the Qur'an is said to be eternal. However, the Qur'an talks about Adam's expulsion from the Paradise any explanation of who Adam was and what the Paradise is. Hence, the Qur'an depends 100% on the Bible. Without the Bible, the Qur'an makes absolutely no sense. How can an eternal, uncreated book depend on a created and allegedly corrupted book?

I just gave u the evidence lol


Mushlam in hebrew bible

 

[LuisDantas]

G2675
καταρτίζω
katartizō
Total KJV Occurrences: 17
perfect, 5
(...)

I take it that you are showing that the greek word is translated in various ways in the KJV of the Bible?

What do you make from that?

 

[LuisDantas]

I just gave u the evidence lol


Mushlam in hebrew bible

As I explained back in post #14, I don't think that counts as evidence for that purpose.

Perhaps it could be evidence for the close relationship between those languages. But for Jesus or any pre-Muhammad Christian even having a concept of Muslim related to that of the Qur'an? Not at all.

 

[wizanda]

I take it that you are showing that the greek word is translated in various ways in the KJV of the Bible?

What do you make from that?

Translated in different ways, and used within other contexts, that then don't imply it meaning a Muslims.

 

[Servant_of_the_One1]

As I explained back in post #14, I don't think that counts as evidence for that purpose.

Perhaps it could be evidence for the close relationship between those languages. But for Jesus or any pre-Muhammad Christian even having a concept of Muslim related to that of the Qur'an? Not at all.

I didnt make up the Mushlam word.
U can ask Non-muslims/non-Mushlams for confirming.

 

[LuisDantas]

I didnt make up the Mushlam word.
U can ask Non-muslims/non-Mushlams for confirming.

That is not the matter. I am certain that the word existed before.

It was not however associated with Muhammad or with the Qur'an at the time the Gospels were written. Among other reasons, because Muhammad and the Qur'an did not exist yet.

So I do not understand why you expect anyone to see a connection - and I am sure that most other people share that opinion of mine, if I dare be so bold.

 

[Parsimony]

It existed yes, Mushlam
Mu-Shlam. Shlam comes from Shalom.


The word Muslim and Mushlam are almost identical. Mu-Slim. Slim comes from Salaam.

In some European countries muslims are called Musulman.

It couldn't have had the same meaning back then as it does today, as neither Muhammad nor the Quran existed when Jesus made these statements. Unless, of course, one wants to argue that being a Muslim has nothing to do with Muhammad or the Quran.

 

[Servant_of_the_One1]

It couldn't have had the same meaning back then as it does today, as neither Muhammad nor the Quran existed when Jesus made these statements. Unless, of course, one wants to argue that being a Muslim has nothing to do with Muhammad or the Quran.

I disagree with u.

But u agree Mushlam and Muslim is same just like Shalom and Salam?


We believe Muslim have nothing to do with Muhammad pbuh, and Muhammad pbuh didnt invent that.
Allah made the Mushlam/Muslim for his believers.


Allah swt told Abraham to submit, abraham said i submit to the Lord of the Worlds.
Jacob asked his sons what will they worship after his death, they said his God and the God of his forefathers and they will die as mushlams/muslims.

 

[Servant_of_the_One1]

That is not the matter. I am certain that the word existed before.

It was not however associated with Muhammad or with the Qur'an at the time the Gospels were written. Among other reasons, because Muhammad and the Qur'an did not exist yet.

So I do not understand why you expect anyone to see a connection - and I am sure that most other people share that opinion of mine, if I dare be so bold.

No, i mean Mushlam just means someone who submits to the will of Allah.

Jesus pbuh said i follow the will of God.
Thats what mushlam and muslim means.

 

[outhouse]

Allah swt told Abraham to submit

Abraham does not have historicity as ever existing, good luck with this method of proselytizing

 

[Ingledsva]

No check the Hebrew version.

Greek version is corrupted. Thats my belief.

It was written in Greek, perhaps earlier Aramaic. We don't have originals - just copies of copies of copies.

As I, and others, have said - the Quran is way later then Tanakh, or New Testament.

Thus what you are saying can't be.


*

 

[-Peacemaker-]

Words are simply a bucket filled with meaning. For example, Ive heard of Christians who call themselves 'Muslims' because technically the word means 'submission to God'. I think most people would say that's a little disingenuous. Even if the same word was used 1000+ years before (I have no idea if it was or wasn't) in a text doesn't mean that the meaning is remotely similar

 

[Ouroboros]

The word used is Mushlam(muslim).

The word in the Greek text is katertismenos ("fully trained").

That's the same word in this text: "Going on from there, he saw two other brothers, James son of Zebedee and his brother John. They were in a boat with their father Zebedee, musliming (katartizontas) their nets. Jesus called them," Mathew 4:21

And this one: "What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—muslimed (katertismena) for destruction?" Romans 9:22

 

[Ouroboros]

No check the Hebrew version.

Greek version is corrupted. Thats my belief.

Well, that's funny, since the Hebrew version is a translation from the Greek. So if the source is corrupt, then the translation is as well.

 

[outhouse]

, perhaps earlier Aramaic

Not likely

Real Jews had nothing to do with this.

 

[use_your_brain]

The word used is Mushlam(muslim).

Then let us still use MUSHLAM the way Jesus spoke. anyway what does the real meaning of this hebrew word?

 

[outhouse]

Jesus spoke. anyway what does the real meaning of this hebrew word?

He probably did not speak Hebrew

And nothing from Jesus in the NT is certain quote from the man.

One thing is certain, no one mention any muslim in the whole of the NT in context, it this attempt is only proselytizing rhetoric

 

[use_your_brain]

Well, that's funny, since the Hebrew version is a translation from the Greek. So if the source is corrupt, then the translation is as well.

so the existing Hebrew bible nowadays is from the Greek version? no make sense at all.

 

[use_your_brain]

He probably did not speak Hebrew

And nothing from Jesus in the NT is certain quote from the man.

One thing is certain, no one mention any muslim in the whole of the NT in context, it this attempt is only proselytizing rhetoric

but he mentioned MUSHLAM.