We can always extract patterns out of so called random-ness.
Yes, but they don't last. They aren't good for prediction.
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We can always extract patterns out of so called random-ness.
By choosing the flipping of coins we set up parameters, which means that we impose an order on what we otherwise presume to be disorder: "chance". Because the order we impose is in balance with disorder we assume, we get a balanced "50/50" result.OK, so in the traditional flipping of a coin, the fact that over the long run, there is an average of 50% heads and 50% tails (a new level of order) makes it non-random?
It is possible to go to the next level and say that there is order in the second order means as well.
The *complete* absence of order would mean that the coins turn into dice, or elephants.
I disagree with your characterization of quantum randomness. As far as we can tell, it is truly random by your usage: there is literally no way to predict quantum results given previous events. It doesn't appear to be simply a matter of ignorance, as shown by things like the violation of Bell's inequalities.
Well, the distinction I make between chaotic and random is that randomness *cannot* be predicted, even in theory, while chaos could be given enough information. Turbulence is chaotic. Quantum events appear to be random.
What I know of quantum theory I have learned from a free android app, but it seems to me from those that Bells inequalities rely on the uncertainty principle and so cannot be statements about absolute randomness but must include measures of our inability to predict which seems to leave the question open as to whether they fall into Polymath's chao or randomness categories. Practically we cannot predict the outcomes, but how does this translate to actual knowledge about what causes collapse to go one way or the other?"As far as we can tell" and an inability to "predict" speak only to our ability to determine the nature of the event, and not to its actual nature, which is what is under question: did it have a cause or not. Bell's inequalities says in part that in the case of quantum events; some are absolutely random; however, this has been challenged by theories of superdeterminism, all of which is why I hedge my conclusion and say "TRUE, Uncaused Randomness does not appear to exist; however, I'm not ready to rule it out entirely."
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As you probably guessed I am not much of a Dennett fan, I think he is a lousy philosopher.
Choices don't exist without freewill.
Also the range of events I described did not occur within too limited of a range.
If Atoms ricocheting off each other is all that determines events then after every intentional thought I had just about any secondary event could have taken place.
The fact that hundreds of events transpired that allowed me to fulfill my intention suggest that blind forces are not what governed these events (choices).
I don't agree that the event that follows another occurs within a narrow range.
If atoms in motion determine all events can you imagine the size of the set of all possible actions that follow from a previous action?
I don't find your rejection of a scholar as well credentialed as Fred Hoyle persuasive. It appear to be a desperation move but maybe you could explain further. I am not sure what aspect of reality Fred was referring to when he made the statement about but I can think of one that it does apply to. The teleological argument for God (Fine tuning argument) suggests very strongly that our universe exhibits intentionality in even it's most remote events. For the universe to support advanced life (be consistent with God's purpose) it must be balanced on a knife edge. Many of the relationships like strong nuclear force, expansion rate, symmetry breaking have constants thrown into their relationships that must all be exactly what they are to get any universe than can support life. Keep in mind this is no sharp shooter fallacy, this (if life is the prize) is basically the universe winning the life lottery over and over and over again against unimaginable odds and these odds are multiplication not additive. Just as if the same person kept winning the same lottery over and over and over we would all suspect manipulation of an intelligent source so with the universe. It appear as he stated that a super intellects has monkeyed with all the relationships in the universe. Sorry I did not intend to spend so much time on this footnote.
I can quote similar conclusions from hundreds of scientists including the most modern but you can see that Hoyle logic is sound just by looking at the example I gave above. I suspect your rejection of Hoyle is based on some level of bias instead of his actual abilities. In a contest between your credentials and Hoyle's it should be obvious (all things being equal) who's I should place my trust in.
Modern science (abstract science) is because of the faith of men like Hoyle.
Look, all this stuff is interesting but you have not touched my central claim. Why are trillions of intentional states fulfilled by a force that has no interest in fulfilling anyone's intention. Why are atoms in motion so obliging despite having no will.
You can't explain this by determinism alone but I wish you would at least try. Until you do my trillions of examples of freewill remain perfectly intact. Explain to me why uncaring physical forces would enable us to carry on a debate it cares nothing for. Which cares for and intends nothing at all.
My wife always cut the roast in half before putting it in the oven. One day I asked: Honey, why do you always cut the roast in half before putting it in the oven. She replied: Because that's how my mother and grandmother always did it.
She decided to ask grandma why she always cut the roast in half before putting it in the oven.
Grandma's response: Because I had a small oven.
Many seem to assume that the Big Bang, formation of elements, expansion of the universe, stars, black holes, planets, moons, conditions becoming ideal for the unintentional formation of molecules to produce RNA, DNA, simple life leading to complex life, a complex ecosystem, various life forms developing and passing on increasing ability and capability, etc., etc., must all have preceded the sort of self-aware, intentional creativity and increasing mastery of environment possessed by humans.
Technically, all of those things did precede OUR creativity.
However, it seems more logical to me that self-aware, intentional creativity necessarily existed/developed initially -allowing for a step-by-step formation/creation of an increasingly complex and purposeful self and environment -then allowing for the intentional and purposeful creation of an extremely complex environment and its many interdependent inhabitants.
Such not only answers all fundamental questions, but there is extremely abundant evidence that things cannot move beyond the otherwise-natural in the absence of self-aware intentional creativity.
Yes it does. It make the individual events random. There is nothing wrong with that, surely? There is nothing ambiguous about the concept of randomness in relation to radioactive decay. Each decay event occurs randomly, ie. with no order, no pattern.
What I think has emerged in a number of the discussions in this thread is that individually random events or behaviour, eg. at the level if individual atoms or molecules, can lead to ordered and predictable bulk behaviour. This, surely is the basis of kinetic theory and statistical mechanics, is it not?
We can always extract patterns out of so called random-ness.
That is debatable. In part, it depends on what you mean by a *choice*.Choices don't exist without freewill.
Also the range of events I described did not occur within too limited of a range. If Atoms ricocheting off each other is all that determines events then after every intentional thought I had just about any secondary event could have taken place. The fact that hundreds of events transpired that allowed me to fulfill my intention suggest that blind forces are not what governed these events (choices). Again if you get hungry (and atoms in motion don't care if you starve to death) why were these blind forces so obliging as to perform the hundreds of necessary actions that allowed you to actual eat some food? No, the fact is to explain the set of all events you need both determinism and free will). Either one alone just isn't enough to explain intentional fulfillment.
I don't agree that the event that follows another occurs within a narrow range. If atoms in motion determine all events can you imagine the size of the set of all possible actions that follow from a previous action? It's incomprehensively large. Lets say you think to yourself that you want to call a family member, the amount of actions that can follow that thought are countless if blind physics is determining events. Why is a force that has no intentionality so obliging as to let you go through the hundreds of actions required for you to actually place the call? So far I simply can't make you reconcile this fact with your worldview. Nothing else in our posts makes any difference unless you can reckon with these trillions of intentional thoughts that are being fulfilled (supposedly) by a force that does not care anything about fulfilling anything.
I don't find your rejection of a scholar as well credentialed as Fred Hoyle persuasive. It appear to be a desperation move but maybe you could explain further. I am not sure what aspect of reality Fred was referring to when he made the statement about but I can think of one that it does apply to. The teleological argument for God (Fine tuning argument) suggests very strongly that our universe exhibits intentionality in even it's most remote events. For the universe to support advanced life (be consistent with God's purpose) it must be balanced on a knife edge. Many of the relationships like strong nuclear force, expansion rate, symmetry breaking have constants thrown into their relationships that must all be exactly what they are to get any universe than can support life. Keep in mind this is no sharp shooter fallacy, this (if life is the prize) is basically the universe winning the life lottery over and over and over again against unimaginable odds and these odds are multiplication not additive. Just as if the same person kept winning the same lottery over and over and over we would all suspect manipulation of an intelligent source so with the universe. It appear as he stated that a super intellects has monkeyed with all the relationships in the universe. Sorry I did not intend to spend so much time on this footnote.
Indeed we can. I have seen a hypothesis that in any given string of infinite random numbers, like say Pi, if you search the sequence long enough, you can find patterns within it, such as a JPEG file with a picture of a circle.
And since the sequence is infinite? We can expect an infinite number of such files...
Or so I am told by people much cleverer than I could ever be. In an infinite, randomly organized sequence of numbers, I suppose you could reasonably expect to find anything.
Part of this is due to the fact that there are only the 10 symbols (in base 10), which constrains how random it can be.
Not all -not adequately -but I am not denying what has been shown to be absolutely true THUS FAR.It may be logical to you, but it is not necessary. All of the history and evolution of our physical existence and our universe is explained adequately without a 'self-aware, intentional creativity necessarily existed/developed initially allowing for a step by step formation of an increasingly complex and purposeful self and environment.'
Not all -not adequately -but I am not denying what has been shown to be absolutely true THUS FAR.
Having a history (especially an incomplete one) does not equate to having an explanation.
That is absolutely untrue (not factual). Otherwise, things such as multiverses would not be considered as possible explanations.It may be logical to you, but it is not necessary. All of the history and evolution of our physical existence and our universe is explained adequately without a 'self-aware, intentional creativity necessarily existed/developed initially allowing for a step by step formation of an increasingly complex and purposeful self and environment.'
That is absolutely untrue (not factual). Otherwise, things such as multiverses would not be considered as possible explanations.
You have no clue why or how the singularity or big bang existed/happened in the first place -the history which preceded it (it is often assumed to be the beginning of any sort of history/time) -and you have extremely incomplete information about what has transpired since.
You may be satisfied, but that is not the same as all history and evolution of our physical existence being adequately explained -even if not considering self-aware, intentional creativity as a possible explanation.
No, that is NOT the motivation for looking at multiverses. In fact, the unification of general relativity and quantum mechanics has long been of great theoretical interest in physics. It seems that any attempt to do such a unification has multiverses arising naturally in the theory. Now, that may well change tomorrow with a new proposal, but there are good, fundamental reasons why it is probably the case (sum over histories version of QM).
Correct. It may not even make sense to ask what happened 'before the singularity'. Even the existence of the 'singularity' as an actual singularity is in doubt if quantum theories of gravity are correct (the singularity gets smoothed out by quantum effects).
Why would we jump to an inherently complicated 'explanation' that has no actual explanatory power, no testability, and requires a much more intricate system based on no hard evidence?
What I know of quantum theory I have learned from a free android app, but it seems to me from those that Bells inequalities rely on the uncertainty principle and so cannot be statements about absolute randomness but must include measures of our inability to predict which seems to leave the question open as to whether they fall into Polymath's chao or randomness categories. Practically we cannot predict the outcomes, but how does this translate to actual knowledge about what causes collapse to go one way or the other?
I had heard that multiverses were considered at least partly to explain fine tuning (as an alternative to the idea of design) -and they (if true) would certainly be part of the history/explanation for our present situation.No, that is NOT the motivation for looking at multiverses. In fact, the unification of general relativity and quantum mechanics has long been of great theoretical interest in physics. It seems that any attempt to do such a unification has multiverses arising naturally in the theory. Now, that may well change tomorrow with a new proposal, but there are good, fundamental reasons why it is probably the case (sum over histories version of QM).
Correct. It may not even make sense to ask what happened 'before the singularity'. Even the existence of the 'singularity' as an actual singularity is in doubt if quantum theories of gravity are correct (the singularity gets smoothed out by quantum effects).
Why would we jump to an inherently complicated 'explanation' that has no actual explanatory power, no testability, and requires a much more intricate system based on no hard evidence?
OK, so in the traditional flipping of a coin, the fact that over the long run, there is an average of 50% heads and 50% tails (a new level of order) makes it non-random?
It is possible to go to the next level and say that there is order in the second order means as well.
The *complete* absence of order would mean that the coins turn into dice, or elephants.