Why would you ask me "what's the issue"? That question should be directed at those who have irrational hang-up over pre-existing (and adequate) terminology, and who want to make use of pointless, unnecessary, and inaccurate terms like "sexual fluidity". As you've admitted yourself, sexual orientation really isn't something that shifts or changes, you either are always X or you're not. So what's exactly is "fluid" about that? You can't convince someone to be bi if they have no pre-existing inclination.
I'm asking you what's the issue because you're saying that someone that personally identifies as something is
wrong about their own identifier, especially without proper reasoning, imo.
It's not like someone is saying "I'm a horse" and you're saying "no, obviously you're a human". Instead, there's a spectrum of sexuality, and a person who is pretty far towards one side is saying "I'm hetero" and you're saying "no, that's bi".
Why?
They possess qualities of both genders, and a bisexual is attracted to both genders, so why would that be inaccurate?
I still don't understand why those terms aren't interchangeable with bisexual?
Again, if that aspect is part of their attraction, then I guess something from "bi" to "heterosexual with bi leanings" would apply.
Bi means two.
Please look at these two posts from earlier in this thread:
I have no problem with other people who identify as "queer" though.
I've just always considered myself "bi" because I personally have only ever been attracted to those who identify as cis-female or cis-male, but as they say, "different strokes for different folks." Also...sorry if my last post came across as too blunt.
As for me I'm pansexual, meaning that I can be attracted to a person regardless of their gender identity or biological sex (I like men, women, transgender/transsexual people, etc). I prefer to call myself a queer, though, because it is a more subversive term. I don't like "straight", "gay", "lesbian" and "bisexual" as labels because I feel that they are too limiting. Of course any label is limiting in a way, but if I have to label myself, I prefer one that affords me the most amount of freedom.
So FH, one identifies as bi and is attracted to men and women but is specifically
not attracted to trans men or trans women, and the other is attracted to both sexes, plus trans people, plus androgynous people, etc.
That's why words like pansexual, polysexual, and queer, are used sometimes. To describe that difference. When precision is important, there are words available for it.
No, straight with bi leanings would be strait with bi leanings. Simply "straight" implies a total lack of bi leanings.
Does "straight" imply that? Says who? The terminology itself, "
straight with bi leanings" implies primarily
straight.
Straight is the central term there.
Again, I direct you to the example of being a vegetarian for a decade and eating meat once on Thanksgiving to spare a mother's feelings. Should that person put qualifiers before saying "yes" when asked if they are vegetarian? Not for any realistic purpose, no. They're vegetarian.
For example when my doctor asked me if I was vegetarian when I was vegetarian for many years, answering "no, I'm an omnivore" because I ate meat once two years prior would have been misleading. Obviously any health aspects of vegetarians he's inquiring about would apply to me, for the purposes of his question.
Again, orientation is orientation regardless of what they focus/act upon or even acknowledge, right?
If that link I posted earlier in this thread showing that 51% of women have had a sexual encounter with another woman or would like to is of any merit, quite a number of women are bisexual, according to your terms. Maybe the majority. Realistically that's not the case though; they're apparently much more interested in men, as am I.
Personally, I'm surprised that not more people are open to sexual encounters with either sex. The physical difference between genders is minimal; we're all flesh, muscle, and bone.
Consider a thought experiment where some funny scientific study is being done, and a heterosexual man volunteers, and he's sitting blindfolded while his penis is being manually stimulated by someone he expected was probably a woman. The scientist asks, "Does it feel good?" and he says "yes", and the scientist says "okay, take your blindfold off", and he does, see's that it's actually a
man touching him, and suddenly he's entirely turned off, and pushes the guy away.
So what would the issue be in that scenario? Do you think of it as being unrealistic for what many guys would do? Apparently the tactile sensation was okay. But as soon as he mentally linked the tactile sensation with the idea of a man doing it, it went from physically pleasurable to conceptually repulsive, right?
But why? How much of that was a strictly biological response and how much of that was social conditioning? Does he have to be
attracted to the man to find the touch pleasurable? Apparently not, at least not until he took the blindfold off. All that he really needs to be is netural towards that man, because neutrality shouldn't disrupt the physical sensation he was feeling, right? But repulsion would.
If he's neutral to that guy, and can continue finding it pleasurable, are you saying that he is bi?
Are you saying that a person is either attracted or repulsed, and that neutrality is in the same category as attraction? Because I wouldn't say that, I'd view that as a spectrum, and neutrality should not be considered attraction, just like it wouldn't be considered repulsion. It's somewhere in the middle.
Now consider what I described again:
Besides, how are we defining attraction/desire? Hypothetically, if a woman never thinks about other women when masturbating, and when she sees beautiful women she thinks "meh", but if she slept with a woman that pursued her and did enjoy it quite a bit and then went back to focusing on guys, are we calling that attraction/desire? Wouldn't "bi" be a misleading term there?
Is that description one of attraction, or neutrality? Did she go after other women? Does she seem to consider women as potential life partners? Not really. Looks like neutrality to me. Enough social barriers are removed to find the touch pleasurable, without necessarily feeling an attraction towards the other person. And suppose she wants to return the favor, because she mentally enjoys that person, is grateful for the encounter, found it fairly enjoyable, and wants to please the other woman? Is that attraction? Again, if there are no social barriers, does a person have to be attracted to do that? Or just neutral?
If a woman is attracted to men, and doesn't really think about women or find herself particularly attracted to women, but has enjoyed a sexual experience with a woman once, I don't see any good reason to call her bisexual, and if she advertised herself as bisexual it would be kind of misleading, wouldn't it?