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Solve the Riddle of Compatibilism, Win Big Prize

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
"Compatibilism is the thesis that free will is compatible with determinism.” Is that a coherent thesis? I have often asked people who've ostensibly espoused compatibilism to explain it, but to no avail, and even philosophical works attempting to defend this thesis generally leave me with at least as many questions as I had to begin with.

The concept of determinism--

Determinism is the philosophical position that for every event there exist conditions that could cause no other event.​

Determinism - Wikipedia

Determinism: The world is governed by (or is under the sway of) determinism if and only if, given a specified way things are at a time t, the way things go thereafter is fixed as a matter of natural law.​

Causal Determinism (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

--does not entail multiple possible futures, such as where tomorrow I could and might choose black socks to wear or I could and might choose to wear multicolored argyle socks. In a world under sway of determinism, all of my pondering and deliberation over what socks to wear is an inexplicable waste of energy--I will wear whatever “natural law” determines (presumably has already determined) I will wear. As the definitions make clear, determinism cannot be true if in the universe there occurs even a single event that has not been fully determined by prior conditions.

Yet the brief Wikipedia article on compatibilism says that “compatibilists often define an instance of 'free will' as one in which the agent had freedom to act according to their own motivation.” But where and how does that “freedom” raise its head in determinism's relentless machinery of causes and effects? Exactly how can one distinguish between an agent acting freely according to his/her own motivations and a thing that is acting not according to its motivations? Is there some physiological difference?

The SEP article provides a couple of definitions of free will, which, to my mind, can be understood as defining distinct abilities. In its initial paragraph, we are told, “As a theory-neutral point of departure . . . free will can be defined as the unique ability of persons to exercise control over their conduct in the manner necessary for moral responsibility.” Subsequently, in the section “Freedom According to Classical Compatibilism,” a definition is given similar to the one in Wikipedia: “Free will . . . is the unencumbered ability of an agent to do what she wants.” Given that which color of socks I wear has zero moral gravitas, the first definition would seem to be irrelevant to these sorts of decisions. (Much of the article's discussion pertains to the issue of moral responsibility, and defenses of compatibilism are often largely defenses of moral responsibility in a deterministic world. In the context of discussion of free will and determinism, I find the issue of moral responsibility an unnecessary complication. Every day we make innumerable decisions, beyond choosing which socks to wear, that have no moral consequence.)

In any case, the same questions loom over the second SEP definition as left unanswered by the Wikipedia definition: How does an agent have an unencumbered ability to do what she wants in a deterministic world? Where does that “unencumbered ability to do what she wants” exist and how does it exert its effects in a deterministic world? Is there any observable difference between an agent acting with “unencumbered ability to do what she wants” and a robot that has no desires of any sort performing the same act? If not, what rescues compatibilism from vacuity?

The Wikipedia article even asserts the seemingly self-contradictory statement “A compatibilist can believe that a person can choose between many choices, but the choice is always determined by external factors.” But if every decision a person makes is determined by “external factors,” where's the person's freedom?

Defining “free will” as merely an expression of what one wants or is motivated to do also fails to address two related (or not necessarily two distinct) facts: (1) People often do what they don't want to do--many young men who were drafted and went to fight in the Vietnam war did not actually want to go. Few people truly want to write that check every year to the IRS. To claim that people go to war and pay their income taxes because they prefer doing so rather than face the consequences of not doing so nevertheless doesn't imply that they are acting according to their primary wants or motivations--they are still doing something they don't want to do. (2) People often have divided or conflicting desires and motivations--e.g., the desire to lose weight and the desire to eat a large pizza. To assert that it is the strongest or biggest desire that eventually wins only kicks the can down the road. Who decides which is the strongest or biggest desire? The person with those conflicting desires. Regardless of what “external factors” might influence a person in such a decision, it is ultimately the person who weighs those factors, and thereby decides which path to take--except in a deterministic world (in which case, again it is inexplicable why there is this distracting and energy-sucking internal struggle between eating a 5,000-calorie pizza and being fit). Thus defining “free will” as doing what one wants doesn't make it any more congenial to determinism.

Interestingly and oddly, the SEP article makes a decisive comment upfront, in the section “Compatibilism's Competitors,” noting the obvious fact that the “compatibilists' main adversaries are incompatibilists . . .” Incompatibilists, of course, come in two different flavors: libertarians (who deny that determinism is true, and hold that at least some people have free will) and hard determinists (who claim that determinism is true and that no one is free to choose their actions). The article then informs us, “In recent times, hard determinism has fallen out of fashion, largely because our best sciences suggest that determinism is probably false.” Indeed, there is no rational reason to believe that determinism is true, which leaves compatibilism equally unnecessary and irrelevant as hard determinism. We don't need a jiggery-pokery thesis that tries to reconcile free will with determinism just like we don't need one that tries to reconcile dinosaur fossil evidence with a 6,000-year-old earth.

But if you can defend compatibilism as a coherent idea, and answer the questions above, here is your opportunity.
 
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Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
By the way, the Wikipedia article on compatibilism makes a pile of confounding statements in the first couple of paragraphs that I wish to address. My red numbering:

(1) Compatibilists believe freedom can be present or absent in situations for reasons that have nothing to do with metaphysics.[2] (2) They define free will as freedom to act according to one's motives without arbitrary hindrance from other individuals or institutions.[citation needed]

For example, courts of law make judgments, without bringing in metaphysics, about whether an individual was acting of their own free will in specific circumstances.​

(1) Regardless of what compatibilists may believe has “nothing to do with metaphysics” about the presence or absence of a person's freedom to choose between available options, the thesis of determinism is definitely a metaphysical thesis, as would be any thesis reconciling determinism and free will. One cannot change that fact by merely announcing otherwise. The very existence of multiple options between which an willful agent can choose is prohibited by determinism. Compatibilism is swarming with metaphysics.

(2) Obviously judges and juries decide questions of individuals' guilt and liability without issuing dissertations on metaphysics. That fact does not help to clarify the thesis of compatibilism, and is unrelated to the thesis of compatibilism. Moreover, finding a defendant guilty or not guilty of a crime has nothing to do with whether there was “arbitrary hindrance from other individuals or institutions” in the defendant's alleged criminal act(s). Attempted murder is a criminal act, regardless of any “arbitrary hindrances” to completing the murder.

The legal issues pertaining to a person's willful conduct are assumed and set out in the statutes or the principles of common law. For instance, the Model Penal Code predicates criminal conduct on the difference between voluntary and involuntary acts, making the former a prerequisite of a criminal act; this distinction is consistent with the commonplace intuition of voluntary acts versus involuntary bodily movements, even while the thesis of determinism obliterates the very possibility of voluntary acts: if determinism were true all movements a person performs are just as involuntary as those a deterministic machine performs:

2.01 Requirement of Voluntary Act; Omission as Basis of Liability; Possession as an Act.

(1) A person is not guilty of an offense unless his liability is based on conduct which includes a voluntary act or the omission to perform an act of which he is physically capable.

(2) The following are not voluntary acts within the meaning of this Section:

(a) a reflex or convulsion;

(b) a bodily movement during unconsciousness or sleep;

(c) conduct during hypnosis or resulting from hypnotic suggestion;

(d) a bodily movement that otherwise is not a product of the effort or determination of the actor, either conscious or habitual.​

https://www.lexisnexis.com/

Statutes also identify the criminal intent (mens rea) that a criminal act requires (except for strict liability crimes), and specify such intent according to degrees of culpability (using the designations of the MPC, from greatest to least degree of culpability): “purposefully,” “knowingly,” “recklessly” and “negligently”. A person’s conscious decision is an overt feature of the most culpable mental state, which in some states is referred to as “intentional,” such as found in the Texas statute:

A person acts intentionally, or with intent, with respect to the nature of his conduct or to a result of his conduct when it is his conscious objective or desire to engage in the conduct or cause the result.​

PENAL CODE CHAPTER 6. CULPABILITY GENERALLY

Obviously we know of no deterministic machines that have mental states that desire or intend to cause the result of an act, and there is no reason to believe that any deterministic machine can possess such a mental state of intent. Thus, in whatever way compatibilism entails determinism, it seems to be inconsistent with the law's requirements of voluntary movements and criminal intent.

However, someone as rich in intelligence and advanced degrees as Stephen J. Morse, U Penn professor of law and professor of psychology and law in psychiatry, whose opinions matter, would disagree with that last sentence as well as other comments such as, “the thesis of determinism obliterates the very possibility of voluntary acts--if determinism were true all movements a person performs are just as involuntary as those a deterministic machine performs.” In his chapter entitled, “Neuroscience, Free Will, and Criminal Responsibility,” in Free Will and the Brain: Neuroscientific, Philosophical and Legal Perspectives, he unequivocally states:

Criminal responsibility doctrines and practices are fully compatible with the truth of determinism (or causal closure). Until science conclusively demonstrates that human beings are not responsive to and cannot be guided by reasons and that mental states do not play even a partial causal role in explaining behavior, the folk-psychological model of responsibility will endure as fully justified. Scientific findings, whether from neuroscience or other sciences, will be useful only if they help elucidate the law’s folk psychological criteria. This claim does not “wall off” the law’s responsibility practices from science. Rather, it simply requires that the scientific data be translated into the law’s folk-psychological criteria. As the eminent forensic psychiatrist Phillip Resnick says generally about legally relevant behavior: “You need to understand why. And you can’t see why on an fMRI” (quoted in Doherty, 2007).​

So, professor Morse is saying here that humans' reasons and mental states play at least a “partial causal role” in our behavior, and such causation is consistent with determinism or causal closure. Later he reiterates that “mental states are causally effective” (“The law will be fundamentally challenged only if neuroscience or any other science can conclusively demonstrate that the law’s psychology is wrong, and that we are not the type of creatures for whom mental states are causally effective”), and almost immediately he implies that there is a distinction between such mental causation and”brain causation” (“All behavior is the product of the necessary and sufficient causal conditions without which the behavior would not have occurred, including brain causation, which is always part of the causal explanation for any behavior.”). He does not inform us what is the nature of or how to distinguish between a case of “mental causation” from “brain causation”.

In any case, his claims relating to compatibilism just raise the same old, same old questions: If our reasons and mental states deterministically churn out our behaviors, and our reasons and mental states are themselves the unavoidable effects of deterministic processes, then where is one's freedom to choose one's deeds?
 

Kilgore Trout

Misanthropic Humanist
Free will, fundamentally, requires that a different choice could be made. I've yet to hear anything cogent and consistent which can reconcile this with determinism. Logically, I can't even see how it could be reconciled. But, as always, am open to new information and ideas.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
I have never seen an explanation of compatiblism that didn't play with or ignore the exacting nature of determinism. Most compatiblists I've read seem to see the agent as being free of external "coercion," in effect redefining determinism to suit the needs of a free will. The explanations derive from need rather than nature; often declaring "Yah, but . . . ." the "but" being nothing more than special pleading.

Reminds me of the old Scientific Method Vs. Creationist Method cartoon.

the-scientific-method.jpg


.
 
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George-ananda

Advaita Vedanta, Theosophy, Spiritualism
Premium Member
Solve the Riddle of Compatibilism, Win Big Prize

I'll try to shoot the mechanical rotating rabbit with the pellet gun from my non-dual (God and creation are not-two) perspective.

It is all relative. Ultimately it is all God. The universe is God separating Himself to experience finite existing. These many temporary finite beings have a consciousness that is not material and does not operate by mechanical laws. Hence we have free will in the material world. However everything is scripted by God, so it is also all determined.

If I won, I'll take the big stuffed gorilla. If not, I hope I get three tries for the dollar.
 

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
It is all relative. Ultimately it is all God. The universe is God separating Himself to experience finite existing. These many temporary finite beings have a consciousness that is not material and does not operate by mechanical laws. Hence we have free will in the material world. However everything is scripted by God, so it is also all determined.

If I won, I'll take the big stuffed gorilla. If not, I hope I get three tries for the dollar.
I'd say you deserve two more tries. If the term "God" in your scenario is just a substitute for "determinism," then you haven't explained how human individuals can have free will while determinism (see definitions) is true.

BTW, the thesis that God is the lone efficient cause in the world is called occasionalism. At least in the West, it has never been a very popular idea.
 

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I have never seen an explanation of compatiblism that didn't play with or ignore the exacting nature of determinism. Most compatiblists I've read seem to see the agent as being free of external "coercion," in effect redefining determinism to suit the needs of a free will.
Compatibilists do oftentimes define free will as the ability to act without external coercion. I don't see how that would be considered a redefinition of determinism.

J. S. Mill, G. E. Moore, A. J. Ayer, Daniel Dennett, Robert Kane, P. F. Strawson, H. Frankfurt, Honderich have all defined free will in a more contracted way than the libertarian concept. I'm unsure whether Moore or Ayer (or someone else) first defined it to mean the ability to have acted otherwise if the past had been different. This only means that since the past wasn't different, no one could have acted otherwise.

Of course, Hume was skeptical of causation, noting that it is nothing more than a constant conjunction and an inference. Bertrand Russell rejected causation, observing that physicists do not discover causes, only mathematical relations. It's would seem difficult to argue for determinism without causation.

There are ample ways to question or dispute determinism, both empirically and conceptually (without redefining it). Empirically, the fact that the Schrodinger equation does not predict the results of particular measurements seems to seal the deal, until someone comes up with a theory that is more accurate than QM and that is deterministic. Such a theory is hard to imagine. Numerous experiments prove that no local realistic theory can account for the data. Without realism, there is no deterministic theory. There is no rational reason whatsoever to believe that the thesis of determinism is true.

Conceptually, the thesis of determinism depends on the dubious assumption of prescriptive laws of nature. No possible set of descriptive laws can eliminate the possibility of something happening after time t that isn't “fixed as a matter of natural law” (SEP). Prescriptive laws are difficult to justify. I don't know how a law controls the behavior of phenomena. Moreover, exactly what is the law of nature that prevents someone from choosing the pair of black socks tomorrow rather than their argyle sock? There is no known law of nature that restricts a person's behavior in such a way.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Compatibilists do oftentimes define free will as the ability to act without external coercion. I don't see how that would be considered a redefinition of determinism.
My bad. I included other observations that I later mis-deleted, leaving the senseless statement behind. Please ignore it.

Conceptually, the thesis of determinism depends on the dubious assumption of prescriptive laws of nature.
I disagree. I find determinism's strength lies in the fact that no other operation reasonably accounts for our actions. It's a default position. If we don't do things deterministically then how do they occur? If anyone has some other proposal then I expect a reasoned explanation; not something so unilluminating as plunking a name down on the table, such as "free will" and expecting it to convince. However, if anyone wants to posit "free will," I await the description of its operation.

.
 
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George-ananda

Advaita Vedanta, Theosophy, Spiritualism
Premium Member
I'd say you deserve two more tries. If the term "God" in your scenario is just a substitute for "determinism," then you haven't explained how human individuals can have free will while determinism (see definitions) is true.
No. I am afraid I haven't done a good job of explaining non-dualism if you are getting 'God as a substitute for determinism?'
BTW, the thesis that God is the lone efficient cause in the world is called occasionalism. At least in the West, it has never been a very popular idea.
That sounds like you are thinking dualism????

Maybe I'll take my two more chances tomorrow to do a better job with explaining myself.
 

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
No. I am afraid I haven't done a good job of explaining non-dualism if you are getting 'God as a substitute for determinism?'
One cannot defend compatibilism by denying that the thesis of determinism is true. Determinism has to be part of the equation in solving the riddle of compatibilism.

That sounds like you are thinking dualism????
My comment about occasionalism did not assume a metaphysical thesis.
 

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
I find determinism's strength lies in the fact that no other operation reasonably accounts for our actions.
Obviously the behavior of fundamental particles shows the thesis of determinism to be false:

Bell's inequality is established based on local realism. The violation of Bell's inequality by quantum mechanics implies either locality or realism or both are untenable. Leggett's inequality is derived based on nonlocal realism. The violation of Leggett's inequality implies that quantum mechanics is neither local realistic nor nonlocal realistic. The incompatibility of nonlocal realism and quantum mechanics has been currently confirmed by photon experiments.​

Testing Leggett's Inequality Using Aharonov-Casher Effect : Scientific Reports

The term “realism” means that the properties exist in a definite state in the absence of (prior to) a measurement. The “way things go” after time t is not determined by the way things are at time t.
 

George-ananda

Advaita Vedanta, Theosophy, Spiritualism
Premium Member
One cannot defend compatibilism by denying that the thesis of determinism is true. Determinism has to be part of the equation in solving the riddle of compatibilism.

My comment about occasionalism did not assume a metaphysical thesis.
Ok, I do not understand then. Compatibalism is not my thing.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Obviously the behavior of fundamental particles shows the thesis of determinism to be false:

Bell's inequality is established based on local realism. The violation of Bell's inequality by quantum mechanics implies either locality or realism or both are untenable. Leggett's inequality is derived based on nonlocal realism. The violation of Leggett's inequality implies that quantum mechanics is neither local realistic nor nonlocal realistic. The incompatibility of nonlocal realism and quantum mechanics has been currently confirmed by photon experiments.​

Testing Leggett's Inequality Using Aharonov-Casher Effect : Scientific Reports

The term “realism” means that the properties exist in a definite state in the absence of (prior to) a measurement. The “way things go” after time t is not determined by the way things are at time t.
Not obvious at all.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
Then let's hear an argument that violations of Bell and Leggett-Garg inequalities do not refute the thesis of determinism.
What I mean is that lacking the ability to understand the math involved in the Bell and Leggett-Garg inequalities its conclusions are not obvious at all.

.
 

Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
What I mean is that lacking the ability to understand the math involved in the Bell and Leggett-Garg inequalities its conclusions are not obvious at all.
So you don't dispute that experiments have consistently demonstrated violations of Bell and Leggett inequalities on which the postulates of local realism and nonlocal realism are premised?

There is, in fact, plenty of information available online explaining and proving Bell's theorem--if you decide to try to understand it and the experiments.
 

Skwim

Veteran Member
So you don't dispute that experiments have consistently demonstrated violations of Bell and Leggett inequalities on which the postulates of local realism and nonlocal realism are premised?
It should be obvious that without the needed background in math I have no basis to dispute them. However, that doesn't mean I'm jumping on their bandwagon.

There is, in fact, plenty of information available online explaining and proving Bell's theorem--if you decide to try to understand it and the experiments.
I considered it some time ago, but was never compelled to follow through. But who knows . . . . . perhaps I eventually will. :shrug:
.
 
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Nous

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
It should be obvious that without the needed background in math I have no basis to dispute them. However, that doesn't mean I'm jumping on their bandwagon.
You're not jumping on the bandwagon of science?

Strong Loophole-Free Test of Local Realism

Quantum mechanics at its heart is a statistical theory. It cannot with certainty predict the outcome of all single events, but instead it predicts probabilities of outcomes. This probabilistic nature of quantum theory is at odds with the determinism inherent in Newtonian physics and relativity, where outcomes can be exactly predicted given sufficient knowledge of a system. Einstein and others felt that quantum mechanics was incomplete. Perhaps quantum systems are controlled by variables, possibly hidden from us [2], that determine the outcomes of measurements. If we had direct access to these hidden variables then the properties of quantum systems would not need to be treated probabilistically. De Broglie’s 1927 pilot-wave theory was a first attempt at formulating a hidden variable theory of quantum physics [3]; it was completed in 1952 by David Bohm [4, 5]. While the pilot-wave theory can reproduce all of the predictions of quantum mechanics, it has the curious feature that hidden variables in one location can instantly change values because of events happening in distant locations. This seemingly violates the locality principle from relativity, which says that objects cannot signal one another faster than the speed of light. In 1935 the nonlocal feature of quantum systems was popularized by Einstein, Podolsky, and Rosen [6], and is something Einstein later referred to as “spooky actions at a distance”[7]. But in 1964 John Bell showed that it is impossible to construct a hidden variable theory that obeys locality and simultaneously reproduces all of the predictions of quantum mechanics [8]. Bell’s theorem fundamentally changed our understanding of quantum theory and today stands as a cornerstone of modern quantum information science.

Bell’s theorem does not prove the validity of quantum mechanics, but it does allows us to test the hypothesis that nature is governed by local realism. The principle of realism says that any system has pre-existing values for all possible measurements of the system. In local realistic theories, these pre-existing values depend only on events in the past lightcone of the system. Local hidden variable theories obey this principle of local realism. Local realism places constraints on the behavior of systems of multiple particles--constraints that do not apply to entangled quantum particles. This leads to different predictions that can be tested in an experiment known as a Bell test. In a typical two-party Bell test, a source generates particles and sends them to two distant parties, Alice and Bob. Alice and Bob independently and randomly choose properties of their individual particles to measure. Later, they compare the results of their measurements. Local realism constrains the joint probability distribution of their choices and measurements. The basis of a Bell test is an inequality that is obeyed by local realistic probability distributions but can be violated by the probability distributions of certain entangled quantum particles [8]. A few years after Bell derived his inequality, new forms were introduced by Clauser, Horne, Shimony and Holt [9], and Clauser and Horne [10] that are simpler to experimentally test.

In a series of landmark experiments, Freedman and Clauser [11] and Aspect, Grangier, Dalibard, and Roger [12–14] demonstrated experimental violations of Bell inequalities using pairs of polarization-entangled photons generated by an atomic cascade.​

https://www.researchgate.net/profil...trong-Loophole-Free-Test-of-Local-Realism.pdf

Cosmic Bell Test: Measurement Settings from Milky Way Stars

Bell’s theorem states that some predictions of quantum mechanics cannot be reproduced by a local-realist theory. That conflict is expressed by Bell’s inequality, which is usually derived under the assumption that there are no statistical correlations between the choices of measurement settings and anything else that can causally affect the measurement outcomes. In previous experiments, this “freedom of choice” was addressed by ensuring that selection of measurement settings via conventional “quantum random number generators” was spacelike separated from the entangled particle creation. This, however, left open the possibility that an unknown cause affected both the setting choices and measurement outcomes as recently as mere microseconds before each experimental trial. Here we report on a new experimental test of Bell’s inequality that, for the first time, uses distant astronomical sources as “cosmic setting generators.” In our tests with polarization-entangled photons, measurement settings were chosen using real-time observations of Milky Way stars while simultaneously ensuring locality. Assuming fair sampling for all detected photons, and that each stellar photon’s color was set at emission, we observe statistically significant ≳7.31σ and ≳11.93σ violations of Bell’s inequality with estimated p values of ≲1.8×10^−13 and ≲4.0×10^−33, respectively, thereby pushing back by ∼600  years the most recent time by which any local-realist influences could have engineered the observed Bell violation.​

Phys. Rev. Lett. 118, 060401 (2017) - Cosmic Bell Test: Measurement Settings from Milky Way Stars

Violation of the Leggett-Garg Inequality in Neutrino Oscillations

The original goal of LGI [Leggett-Garg Inequality] tests was to demonstrate macroscopic coherence -- that is, that quantum mechanics applies on macroscopic scales up to the level at which many-particle systems exhibit decoherence [3, 8–12]. For this reason, a major focus of recent LGI research has been scaling up to tests with macroscopic systems. Notably, Zhou et al. [9] recently reported finding LGI violation caused by quantum coherence in macroscopic crystals.

LGI tests have another purpose: to test “realism,” the notion that physical systems possess complete sets of definite values for various parameters prior to, and independent of, measurement. “Realism” is often encoded in hidden-variable theories, which allow for systems that are treated as identical according to quantum mechanics to be fundamentally distinguishable through a hidden set of parameters that they possess, such that any measurement on a system reveals a pre-existing value [13]. LGI violations imply that such hidden-variable (or “realistic”) alternatives to quantum mechanics cannot adequately describe a system’s time evolution. Experiments using few-particle systems can test “realism” even if they do not directly address macrorealism [13–18].​

https://www.researchgate.net/profil...cillations/links/56c3ef1008ae60234250be1d.pdf

Violation of the Leggett-Garg Inequality in Neutrino Oscillations

The Leggett-Garg inequality, an analogue of Bell’s inequality involving correlations of measurements on a system at different times, stands as one of the hallmark tests of quantum mechanics against classical predictions. The phenomenon of neutrino oscillations should adhere to quantum-mechanical predictions and provide an observable violation of the Leggett-Garg inequality. We demonstrate how oscillation phenomena can be used to test for violations of the classical bound by performing measurements on an ensemble of neutrinos at distinct energies, as opposed to a single neutrino at distinct times. A study of the MINOS experiment’s data shows a greater than 6σ violation over a distance of 735 km, representing the longest distance over which either the Leggett-Garg inequality or Bell’s inequality has been tested.​

Phys. Rev. Lett. 117, 050402 (2016) - Violation of the Leggett-Garg Inequality in Neutrino Oscillations

There is, in fact, plenty of information available online explaining and proving Bell's theorem--if you decide to try to understand it and the experiments.
I considered it some time ago, but was never compelled to follow through.
It is true that people who have been encouraged to believe in determinism (disbelieve in free will) tend to be passive and conformist. See the studies in the OP and #41: Psychological and Behavioral Effects of Belief in Determinism vs. Belief in Free Will

You need a new religion. Determinism is false, and it doesn't seem to serve anyone well.
 

Guy Threepwood

Mighty Pirate
"Compatibilism is the thesis that free will is compatible with determinism.” Is that a coherent thesis? I have often asked people who've ostensibly espoused compatibilism to explain it, but to no avail, and even philosophical works attempting to defend this thesis generally leave me with at least as many questions as I had to begin with.

The concept of determinism--

Determinism is the philosophical position that for every event there exist conditions that could cause no other event.​

Determinism - Wikipedia

Determinism: The world is governed by (or is under the sway of) determinism if and only if, given a specified way things are at a time t, the way things go thereafter is fixed as a matter of natural law.​

Causal Determinism (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

--does not entail multiple possible futures, such as where tomorrow I could and might choose black socks to wear or I could and might choose to wear multicolored argyle socks. In a world under sway of determinism, all of my pondering and deliberation over what socks to wear is an inexplicable waste of energy--I will wear whatever “natural law” determines (presumably has already determined) I will wear. As the definitions make clear, determinism cannot be true if in the universe there occurs even a single event that has not been fully determined by prior conditions.

Yet the brief Wikipedia article on compatibilism says that “compatibilists often define an instance of 'free will' as one in which the agent had freedom to act according to their own motivation.” But where and how does that “freedom” raise its head in determinism's relentless machinery of causes and effects? Exactly how can one distinguish between an agent acting freely according to his/her own motivations and a thing that is acting not according to its motivations? Is there some physiological difference?

The SEP article provides a couple of definitions of free will, which, to my mind, can be understood as defining distinct abilities. In its initial paragraph, we are told, “As a theory-neutral point of departure . . . free will can be defined as the unique ability of persons to exercise control over their conduct in the manner necessary for moral responsibility.” Subsequently, in the section “Freedom According to Classical Compatibilism,” a definition is given similar to the one in Wikipedia: “Free will . . . is the unencumbered ability of an agent to do what she wants.” Given that which color of socks I wear has zero moral gravitas, the first definition would seem to be irrelevant to these sorts of decisions. (Much of the article's discussion pertains to the issue of moral responsibility, and defenses of compatibilism are often largely defenses of moral responsibility in a deterministic world. In the context of discussion of free will and determinism, I find the issue of moral responsibility an unnecessary complication. Every day we make innumerable decisions, beyond choosing which socks to wear, that have no moral consequence.)

In any case, the same questions loom over the second SEP definition as left unanswered by the Wikipedia definition: How does an agent have an unencumbered ability to do what she wants in a deterministic world? Where does that “unencumbered ability to do what she wants” exist and how does it exert its effects in a deterministic world? Is there any observable difference between an agent acting with “unencumbered ability to do what she wants” and a robot that has no desires of any sort performing the same act? If not, what rescues compatibilism from vacuity?

The Wikipedia article even asserts the seemingly self-contradictory statement “A compatibilist can believe that a person can choose between many choices, but the choice is always determined by external factors.” But if every decision a person makes is determined by “external factors,” where's the person's freedom?

Defining “free will” as merely an expression of what one wants or is motivated to do also fails to address two related (or not necessarily two distinct) facts: (1) People often do what they don't want to do--many young men who were drafted and went to fight in the Vietnam war did not actually want to go. Few people truly want to write that check every year to the IRS. To claim that people go to war and pay their income taxes because they prefer doing so rather than face the consequences of not doing so nevertheless doesn't imply that they are acting according to their primary wants or motivations--they are still doing something they don't want to do. (2) People often have divided or conflicting desires and motivations--e.g., the desire to lose weight and the desire to eat a large pizza. To assert that it is the strongest or biggest desire that eventually wins only kicks the can down the road. Who decides which is the strongest or biggest desire? The person with those conflicting desires. Regardless of what “external factors” might influence a person in such a decision, it is ultimately the person who weighs those factors, and thereby decides which path to take--except in a deterministic world (in which case, again it is inexplicable why there is this distracting and energy-sucking internal struggle between eating a 5,000-calorie pizza and being fit). Thus defining “free will” as doing what one wants doesn't make it any more congenial to determinism.

Interestingly and oddly, the SEP article makes a decisive comment upfront, in the section “Compatibilism's Competitors,” noting the obvious fact that the “compatibilists' main adversaries are incompatibilists . . .” Incompatibilists, of course, come in two different flavors: libertarians (who deny that determinism is true, and hold that at least some people have free will) and hard determinists (who claim that determinism is true and that no one is free to choose their actions). The article then informs us, “In recent times, hard determinism has fallen out of fashion, largely because our best sciences suggest that determinism is probably false.” Indeed, there is no rational reason to believe that determinism is true, which leaves compatibilism equally unnecessary and irrelevant as hard determinism. We don't need a jiggery-pokery thesis that tries to reconcile free will with determinism just like we don't need one that tries to reconcile dinosaur fossil evidence with a 6,000-year-old earth.

But if you can defend compatibilism as a coherent idea, and answer the questions above, here is your opportunity.

Watch a rerun of your favorite sporting event.

The players you are watching are all making choices under their own free will
You know exactly what those free will choices will be, and the ultimate outcome.

free will and determinism in perfect harmony

what do I win?
 
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