Nade
Godless Skeptic
I've always been a little confused as to why proffessional philosophers have struggled to answer this question for so long. It's marked as an unsolvable question, but I never understood why. Here's my reasoning behind this question:
something exists because by definition, if it didn't exist, it would be nothing. But nothing, by definition then, would have to not exist. If nothing existed, it would be something, and thus exist. Therefore, something exists instead of nothing because if nothing does exist, then something exists as opposed to nothing. And nothing can't exist, so the only thing that would be existing would be something.
Therefore something exists as opposed to nothing exists.
What's so difficult about that?
something exists because by definition, if it didn't exist, it would be nothing. But nothing, by definition then, would have to not exist. If nothing existed, it would be something, and thus exist. Therefore, something exists instead of nothing because if nothing does exist, then something exists as opposed to nothing. And nothing can't exist, so the only thing that would be existing would be something.
Therefore something exists as opposed to nothing exists.
What's so difficult about that?