David Young
Member
I think it is inevitable that a number of people from Group A will at some point commit Crime B against members of Group C because of Perceived Injustice D.
If I filled in the algebra with specific examples, this would in many jurisdictions be considered incitement to commit a criminal act, regardless of whether I am saying that Group A would be morally right in their actions.
Should this be the case though?
If I filled in the algebra with specific examples, this would in many jurisdictions be considered incitement to commit a criminal act, regardless of whether I am saying that Group A would be morally right in their actions.
Should this be the case though?
