Polaris
Active Member
I'm sure you've all seen this question many times before, but just to be thourough I'll restate it once again. It is virtually indisputable that millions of people have come and gone without ever having heard of Jesus Christ much less had the chance to believe in him, accept his gospel, and be baptised. In the light of statements such as "except a man be born of the water and of the spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" and "he that believeth and is baptised shall be saved, but he that believeth not shall be damned" what is to become of the millions who never had such opportunities?
Some scriptural literalists claim that those millions will indeed be denied salvation, otherwise God would be a liar.
The majority of Christians believe that God is not so merciless. Many simply believe that the grace of God will prevail and that God will save whom he chooses. While this stance definitely promotes a trust in God and in the power of his mercy, it does so at the expense of justice. Assuming the scriptures quoted above actually mean what they say, it seems quite clear that baptism is a requisite for any to enter the kingdom of God. Is God merciful to the point that He would go against his own word?
I would suggest that he is not. He is perfectly just. He cannot go against his word -- to do so would make him a liar. However I also believe that he is perfectly compassionate and merciful. So how can these seemingly contradictory principles both be made manifest?
Unfortunately the answer is only discussed briefly in the Bible. Peter taught that after Christ's death "he went and preached unto the spirits in prison" (1 Peter 3:19). He taught clearly that the gospel was preached "to them that are dead" (1 Peter 4:6). This suggests that the dead can be instructed concerning Jesus Christ and his gospel.
This would give them the opportunity to believe and accept his gospel. But what then about baptism? Paul gives a little insight concering this. In 1 Corinthians 15 he is defending the doctrine of the resurrection and in doing so he uses the practice of baptism for the dead as a supporting argument for his cause (verse 29). It makes absolutely no sense to assume that he would use a false practice as the basis for his argument. This verse suggests that baptism for the dead was something that was understood and even practiced in the early church.
These two doctrines combined: the preaching of the gospel to the spirits who have passed on, and vicarious baptism for the same, makes perfect sense. Through such doctrine God is both perfectly just and perfectly merciful. None will be denied the opportunity to hear the gospel of Jesus Christ, and all will be afforded the opportunity to choose for themselves whether or not to accept it.
Some scriptural literalists claim that those millions will indeed be denied salvation, otherwise God would be a liar.
The majority of Christians believe that God is not so merciless. Many simply believe that the grace of God will prevail and that God will save whom he chooses. While this stance definitely promotes a trust in God and in the power of his mercy, it does so at the expense of justice. Assuming the scriptures quoted above actually mean what they say, it seems quite clear that baptism is a requisite for any to enter the kingdom of God. Is God merciful to the point that He would go against his own word?
I would suggest that he is not. He is perfectly just. He cannot go against his word -- to do so would make him a liar. However I also believe that he is perfectly compassionate and merciful. So how can these seemingly contradictory principles both be made manifest?
Unfortunately the answer is only discussed briefly in the Bible. Peter taught that after Christ's death "he went and preached unto the spirits in prison" (1 Peter 3:19). He taught clearly that the gospel was preached "to them that are dead" (1 Peter 4:6). This suggests that the dead can be instructed concerning Jesus Christ and his gospel.
This would give them the opportunity to believe and accept his gospel. But what then about baptism? Paul gives a little insight concering this. In 1 Corinthians 15 he is defending the doctrine of the resurrection and in doing so he uses the practice of baptism for the dead as a supporting argument for his cause (verse 29). It makes absolutely no sense to assume that he would use a false practice as the basis for his argument. This verse suggests that baptism for the dead was something that was understood and even practiced in the early church.
These two doctrines combined: the preaching of the gospel to the spirits who have passed on, and vicarious baptism for the same, makes perfect sense. Through such doctrine God is both perfectly just and perfectly merciful. None will be denied the opportunity to hear the gospel of Jesus Christ, and all will be afforded the opportunity to choose for themselves whether or not to accept it.