It's interesting; for the first 175 or so years of the Constitution there was one governing moral philosophy: divine command. All of the decisions were made according to the Bible. The seperation of church and state was to ensure equal treatment of all religion, not a complete dismissal of religion in and of itself; that has only come in the last 50 years. Atheism is the newest form of idolatry in our nation. Our country has since then changed it's philosophy to that of moral relativism. Whatever society says is right is right.
An interesting decision is going to have to ne made in the coming years. If the Supreme Court upholds same sex "marriages," it's going to have to reverse a decision it made back in 1878 in Reynolds v. The U.S. This was a famous case in which it was decided that polygamous unions were unlawful. The Mormon element in Utah brought this to the surface, and the Supreme Court's ruling reflects only one attitude that lends to their decision: The U.S. is a Christian nation, and plural marriages have no business here. If same sex "marriages" are to be allowed, then that decision will have to be reversed.
Many arguments can be made to the effect that the circumstances are different, but from a legal point of view they are related enough to merit the same classification. I am not a proponent of polygamy by any stretch of the imagination, by the way.
Any thoughts?
An interesting decision is going to have to ne made in the coming years. If the Supreme Court upholds same sex "marriages," it's going to have to reverse a decision it made back in 1878 in Reynolds v. The U.S. This was a famous case in which it was decided that polygamous unions were unlawful. The Mormon element in Utah brought this to the surface, and the Supreme Court's ruling reflects only one attitude that lends to their decision: The U.S. is a Christian nation, and plural marriages have no business here. If same sex "marriages" are to be allowed, then that decision will have to be reversed.
Many arguments can be made to the effect that the circumstances are different, but from a legal point of view they are related enough to merit the same classification. I am not a proponent of polygamy by any stretch of the imagination, by the way.
Any thoughts?