Not really. Scripturally, you are a trinitarian too.The questions most certainly have answers - answers the trinitarian is unable to reconcile.
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Not really. Scripturally, you are a trinitarian too.The questions most certainly have answers - answers the trinitarian is unable to reconcile.
I respect your attempt to shore up your difficult position, and I also appreciate your posts which illustrate your point of view well.I am tired of nonsense. Your post does absolutely nothing to refute my propositions or invalidate my syllogisms. It is simply a non-response in a logical debate forum.
Not necessarily because interpretations tend to be variable, plus there is more than one Catholic Bible.Yes, The NWT corrected all the errors translated in by Catholicism--all originals were gone by the time protestants translated--Catholicism translating remained and Hebrew translating. Hebrew translating contradicts Catholicism translating.
The N.T. did not come form the Hebrew but from Koine Greek.Example--trinity teachers use--I am that I am from the ot to try to say Jesus was claiming to be God by saying -I AM-- But reality--In the real Hebrew
Yes, but it's important to look at that process, including the timing:-Fact--No trinity was taught at the first council of Nicea-325) it was added later at another council--it is not truth.
And where did you get this "information" from? Link please.Most of Hitlers armies were young catholic men
Are you aware that those who were drafted had no choice in the matter unless they were willing to go to prison? Are you also aware of the fact that there were quite a few JW's who went into the German army as well, although I'll give the JW's credit in that their numbers proportionally were the lowest of any religious group.The unfortunate reality is that it takes--throwing Jesus away to accomplish what Catholicism has done through the centuries--many other religions claiming to be Christian are lost in the same darkness.
Are you referring to previous translations, or Eastern Orthodox variants?Not necessarily because interpretations tend to be variable, plus there is more than one Catholic Bible.
The former. Even though I'm not Catholic, I have two Catholic Bibles, with one of them being the Jerusalem Bible and the other the NAB.Are you referring to previous translations, or Eastern Orthodox variants?
I still remember reading the Bible and not absorbing any spiritual information. After the born-again moment, the words came alive.
I liken it to a new language. I understood the world's language because I was born into it but the Heavenly language was foreign to me. Being "born again" caused me to be birthed into His Kingdom and thus His language became alive as a baby naturally learns the language in the nation he/she is birthed into.
This is something that has always perplexed me about non-Trinitarians Ingeldvsa. Your statement that Jesus is not named Immanuel would be immediately challenged by any Trinitarian, but would be allowed to sit and fester by my non-Trinitarian Christian friends. In other words they would remain quiet even though you attack Jesus...their declared Savior...as fulfillment of Tanakh prophesy.
It's as if these "last day", post Millerite religions have been set up solely to attack the Trinity rather than to defend or reach concordance with New Testament scripture.
As such, when it comes to giving a defense for what they believe:
"...but sanctify in your hearts Christ as Lord: being ready always to give answer to every man that asketh you a reason concerning the hope that is in you, yet with meekness and fear:" (1 Peter 3:15)
they seem to fall down a bit on the job.
But to answer your question:
Jesus did not have to be named Immanuel. "God with us" is a reference to who Jesus is, not to what Jesus is named. It was also prophesied that Jesus would be cal "Wonderful Counselor" and "Mighty God", and if Mary had named him Immanuel I suspect there would be those wondering why she hadn't named him "Wonderful Counselor" instead.
Not correct.
Isn't it interesting that everything is a PROPHECY from God and can't be changed, - until you don't like what it says HE SAID.
And I might as well add at this point that the verse is not about a future Jesus.
They were in a war and God gave them a sign, - a MAIDEN would conceive and NAME her child Immanuel, God is with us = in the war going on right then. The sign was for Ahaz and Isaiah, which means it cannot be a far future person. Named Kings would be gone BEFORE the child Knew the difference between Good and Evil. So, again, no future Jesus.
The God prophecy says SHE will name her son Immanuel, Not some future person (a pope I think) saying it is a title, trying to claim Jesus is this child. Mary gave her son the wrong name.
Isa 7:14 Therefore will YHVH himself give you a sign: behold, this (‛almah) young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and she shall call his name ‘Immanu-el, God with us.
Quotes below from http://jewsforjudaism.org/knowledge/articles/isaiah-714-a-virgin-birth/
"The Southern Kingdom of Judea had its capital in Jerusalem and was ruled by King Ahaz. The Northern Kingdom of Israel had its capital in Samaria and was ruled by King Pekah. To the north of both these kingdoms was a third, non-Jewish ruler, King Resin of Aram (Syria) whose capital was Damascus.
God dispatched the prophet Isaiah and one of his sons to warn King Ahaz that the northern kingdom had formed an alliance with this King Rezin They had joined forces to “wage war against Jerusalem.”
"Isaiah tells King Ahaz (verse 4) that he should not be afraid because God will be with him and the invasion with fail. Additionally, within 65 years the northern kingdom will cease to exist and its 10 tribes would be led into exile by Assyria. This is where the idea of ten lost tribes originates.
The sign mentioned in verse 14 to Ahaz is that the two kings who threatened King Ahaz would be destroyed quickly. This sign is described in the next verse:
“before the child knows enough to refuse evil and choose good the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken” Isaiah 7:15
It is fulfilled in the next chapter with the birth of a child to the prophet Isaiah:
“he (Isaiah) approached the prophetess and she conceived (tahar) and bore (taled) a son and God said to me: Name the child “Maher-shalal-hash-baz” which means (the spoil speeds the prey hastens). For before the child shall know how to cry my father my mother the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Sammaria will be carried away before the king of Assyria.” Isaiah 8:4"
"Eventually the Northern Kingdom of Israel and Aram-Syria are vanquished by the armies of Sennacherib King of Assyria (Babylon) who exiled the northern kingdom:
“The king of Assyria invaded the entire country… the king of Assyria captured Samaria and exiled Israel” 2 Kings 17:5-6
“Thus God saved Hezikiah (son of Ahaz) and the inhabitants of Jerusalem from the hand of Sennacherib King of Assyria.” 2 Chronicles 32:22" (Note here that we have the SON of AHAZ and the war with ASSYRIA together.)
We will let them speak for themselves.
Well this is pretty easy, but I’d like to pose a question to some of our Arian “true-defenders-of-Christianity-before-it-went-poof-and-apostatized-in-the-3rd-or-4th-century-and-lucky-for-you-we-came- along-to-restore-the-original-teachings” friends what they actually think about this before I answer.
Does Ingledsva have a point? She claims the reference to Jesus as “God with us” at Isaiah 7:14 is “not correct”. Perhaps Matthew was incorrect @ 1:23?
Do you have a scriptural response or does the assertion become invisible when it doesn't support the Trinity?
Or worse, do you fade to black hoping there’s a Trinitarian on board around to answer questions like this for you?
Bonus if you can answer the virgin/young woman challenge.
I'll leave the question open for a day or two.
Thanks!
The questions most certainly have answers - answers the trinitarian is unable to reconcile.
This post is intended to address a subject which has been argued a number of times. I have read some and briefly engaged some of those who reject the deity of Christ because they say that the Bible does not state the words “Jesus is God”. I believe this argument is fallacious, violating the word-concept fallacy. Also it demonstrates a presupposed bias when so many Scriptures identify Christ as divine, attributing to Him many of the divine names given to God. I do not intend to deal with the many New Testament texts ascribing Old Testament references of Jehovah to Jesus Christ. Nor the many references equating Him as Lord in the N.T. with Kurios (Lord) in the Septuagint. I will only use the Apostle John in this post in whose writings reveal the Deity of Christ.
Revelation 19:13 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
13 He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.
This section in Revelation is dealing with the coming of Christ. The Apostle John assigns a descriptive name to Jesus “The Word of God” (Gr. ho logos ho theos). This identifying Christ as “Logos”, the “Word”, is also used by John in the Prologue to his Gospel: John 1:1-18
John 1:1-18 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
The Deity of Jesus Christ
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. 5 The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.
The Witness John
6 There came a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him. 8 He was not the Light, but he came to testify about the Light.
9 There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. 10 He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. 11 He came to His own, and those who were His own did not receive Him. 12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name, 13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
The Word Made Flesh
14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John *testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
Note verse 1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God”. The verb “was” (Gr: en, imperfect of eimi). The continuous action in the past of the imperfect tense of the verb indicates to us that whenever the “beginning” was, the Word was already in existence. “and the Word was with God…the Logos has been in communion and communication with God for eternity as well. The verb is the same as the first clause, and the preposition pros (“with”) pictures for us face-to-face communication. The Greek reads, kai theos en ho logos. We have the same situation in 1.1c.The Greek reads, kai theos en ho logos. Notice that the term Logos has the article ho while the term theos does not. This tells us that the subject of the clause is the Logos. Hence, we could not translate the phrase “and God was the Word” for that would make the wrong term the subject of the clause. Hence, the term “God” is the predicate nominative, the nature of the Logos is the nature of God, just as the nature of God in 1 John 4:8 was that of love. Now, John does emphasize the term “God” by placing it first in the clause – this is not just a “divine nature” as in something like the angels have – rather, it is truly the nature of Deity that is in view here (hence my translation as “Deity”). Dr. Kenneth Wuest, long time professor of Greek at Moody Bible Institute rendered the phrase, “And the Word was as to His essence absolute Deity.”
What he wishes to emphasize here is the personal existence of the Logos in some sense of distinction from “God” (i.e., the Father). The Logos is not the Father nor vice-versa – there are two persons under discussion here.
John 1:1 tells us some extremely important things. First, we see that the Logos is eternal, uncreated. Secondly, we see that there are two Divine Persons in view in John’s mind – the Father and the Logos. Thirdly, there is eternal communication and relationship between the Father and the Logos. Finally, we see that the Logos shares the nature of God.
John goes on to gives to Jesus another descriptive name: “The Light”, the “True Light”, the “Light of the world”.
Verse 14: “And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”
The Word did not eternally exist in the form of flesh; rather, at a particular point in time He became flesh. This is the incarnation.
Verse 18: “No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. NASB
He first asserts that no one has “seen God at any time.” Now, the Old Testament tells us that men have indeed seen God in the past – Isaiah saw God on His throne in Isaiah 6; Abraham walked with Yahweh in Genesis 18. So what does John mean? He defines for us that the one he is speaking of here is the Father – that is, no one has seen the Father at any time. OK, then who was it that was seen by Isaiah or by Abraham?
John tells us – the unique God. Here the phrase is monogenes theos. There is a textual variant here. Many manuscripts have monogenes huios (unique Son) – and the KJV follows this tradition. But the strongest reading is “unique God.” How are we to understand this?
The term “monogenes” is used only of Jesus in the Gospel of John. Jesus is here described as the “unique God” – John is not asserting a separate deity from the Father. Rather, this ‘unique God” is the one who is eternally in fellowship with the Father. Even when discussing the “separateness” of the Father and the Son as persons, John is quick to emphasize the unity of the divine Persons in their eternal fellowship together. Here John teaches, again, the eternal and central fact of the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ.
The unique God makes the Father known – He “explains’ Him. What we know of the Father we know because of the revelation of the Son. We know what the Father is like because we know what Jesus Is like. Here the Son’s function as the revelator of the Father is clearly set forth, and this is directly in line with the usage of the term Logos in the Prologue. Other New Testament writers use the same theme – for Paul Jesus is the “image of the invisible God” and for the writer of Hebrews Jesus is ‘the express image of His (the Father’s) person…” Both writers (or maybe just one writer if Paul indeed wrote Hebrews) are emphasizing the role of Jesus as the revealer of the Father. In the same way, this answers the above question regarding who it was, in John’s opinion, that was seen of Abraham and Isaiah. We have already had occasion to note that John will directly assert that Isaiah saw the glory of Jesus in the person of Yahweh (12:39ff), and could it be that this is the explanation for Jesus’ statement in John 8:56? Did Abraham “see the day of Jesus” when he walked with Him by the oaks of Mamre (Gen. 18:1)?
The conclusion is obvious throughout these few verses:
If Jesus is The Word. Rev.19:13
And if that same Word is God. Jn.1:1-18
Then Jesus is God.
Special thanks to James R White
This post is intended to address a subject which has been argued a number of times. I have read some and briefly engaged some of those who reject the deity of Christ because they say that the Bible does not state the words “Jesus is God”. I believe this argument is fallacious, violating the word-concept fallacy. Also it demonstrates a presupposed bias when so many Scriptures identify Christ as divine, attributing to Him many of the divine names given to God. I do not intend to deal with the many New Testament texts ascribing Old Testament references of Jehovah to Jesus Christ. Nor the many references equating Him as Lord in the N.T. with Kurios (Lord) in the Septuagint. I will only use the Apostle John in this post in whose writings reveal the Deity of Christ.
Revelation 19:13 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
13 He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called The Word of God.
This section in Revelation is dealing with the coming of Christ. The Apostle John assigns a descriptive name to Jesus “The Word of God” (Gr. ho logos ho theos). This identifying Christ as “Logos”, the “Word”, is also used by John in the Prologue to his Gospel: John 1:1-18
John 1:1-18 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
The Deity of Jesus Christ
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. 5 The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not comprehend it.
The Witness John
6 There came a man sent from God, whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him. 8 He was not the Light, but he came to testify about the Light.
9 There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man. 10 He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him. 11 He came to His own, and those who were His own did not receive Him. 12 But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name, 13 who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
The Word Made Flesh
14 And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 John *testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.
Note verse 1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God”. The verb “was” (Gr: en, imperfect of eimi). The continuous action in the past of the imperfect tense of the verb indicates to us that whenever the “beginning” was, the Word was already in existence. “and the Word was with God…the Logos has been in communion and communication with God for eternity as well. The verb is the same as the first clause, and the preposition pros (“with”) pictures for us face-to-face communication. The Greek reads, kai theos en ho logos. We have the same situation in 1.1c.The Greek reads, kai theos en ho logos. Notice that the term Logos has the article ho while the term theos does not. This tells us that the subject of the clause is the Logos. Hence, we could not translate the phrase “and God was the Word” for that would make the wrong term the subject of the clause. Hence, the term “God” is the predicate nominative, the nature of the Logos is the nature of God, just as the nature of God in 1 John 4:8 was that of love. Now, John does emphasize the term “God” by placing it first in the clause – this is not just a “divine nature” as in something like the angels have – rather, it is truly the nature of Deity that is in view here (hence my translation as “Deity”). Dr. Kenneth Wuest, long time professor of Greek at Moody Bible Institute rendered the phrase, “And the Word was as to His essence absolute Deity.”
What he wishes to emphasize here is the personal existence of the Logos in some sense of distinction from “God” (i.e., the Father). The Logos is not the Father nor vice-versa – there are two persons under discussion here.
John 1:1 tells us some extremely important things. First, we see that the Logos is eternal, uncreated. Secondly, we see that there are two Divine Persons in view in John’s mind – the Father and the Logos. Thirdly, there is eternal communication and relationship between the Father and the Logos. Finally, we see that the Logos shares the nature of God.
John goes on to gives to Jesus another descriptive name: “The Light”, the “True Light”, the “Light of the world”.
Verse 14: “And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth.”
The Word did not eternally exist in the form of flesh; rather, at a particular point in time He became flesh. This is the incarnation.
Verse 18: “No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. NASB
He first asserts that no one has “seen God at any time.” Now, the Old Testament tells us that men have indeed seen God in the past – Isaiah saw God on His throne in Isaiah 6; Abraham walked with Yahweh in Genesis 18. So what does John mean? He defines for us that the one he is speaking of here is the Father – that is, no one has seen the Father at any time. OK, then who was it that was seen by Isaiah or by Abraham?
John tells us – the unique God. Here the phrase is monogenes theos. There is a textual variant here. Many manuscripts have monogenes huios (unique Son) – and the KJV follows this tradition. But the strongest reading is “unique God.” How are we to understand this?
The term “monogenes” is used only of Jesus in the Gospel of John. Jesus is here described as the “unique God” – John is not asserting a separate deity from the Father. Rather, this ‘unique God” is the one who is eternally in fellowship with the Father. Even when discussing the “separateness” of the Father and the Son as persons, John is quick to emphasize the unity of the divine Persons in their eternal fellowship together. Here John teaches, again, the eternal and central fact of the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ.
The unique God makes the Father known – He “explains’ Him. What we know of the Father we know because of the revelation of the Son. We know what the Father is like because we know what Jesus Is like. Here the Son’s function as the revelator of the Father is clearly set forth, and this is directly in line with the usage of the term Logos in the Prologue. Other New Testament writers use the same theme – for Paul Jesus is the “image of the invisible God” and for the writer of Hebrews Jesus is ‘the express image of His (the Father’s) person…” Both writers (or maybe just one writer if Paul indeed wrote Hebrews) are emphasizing the role of Jesus as the revealer of the Father. In the same way, this answers the above question regarding who it was, in John’s opinion, that was seen of Abraham and Isaiah. We have already had occasion to note that John will directly assert that Isaiah saw the glory of Jesus in the person of Yahweh (12:39ff), and could it be that this is the explanation for Jesus’ statement in John 8:56? Did Abraham “see the day of Jesus” when he walked with Him by the oaks of Mamre (Gen. 18:1)?
The conclusion is obvious throughout these few verses:
If Jesus is The Word. Rev.19:13
And if that same Word is God. Jn.1:1-18
Then Jesus is God.
Special thanks to James R White
So when you're at a Kingdom Hall or Assembly, do you separate German Witnesses from the rest of the congregation?
Let's correct your next post then, shall we?:
I hear Costa Rica has never been in a war so Witnesses from there must proudly hold their heads over others in your congregation, especially the Germans. Is this true?
Or do you still hold them accountable for your Organization's actions, like the "Declaration of Facts" which for all practical purposes threw the Jews under the bus?
Look, we all know the urge for religious bigotry runs strong and deep in your Organization kjw, but let's try to stick with thread theme.
For example, tell us again how we can quickly determine God from god through the use of capital letters.
Nicea specifically dealt with the deity and eternality of Jesus Christ against Arianism and also affirmed the Trinity against Monarchianism. It went through some revisions concluding, I believe, with the Council of Constantinople 381 AD.
Which is commonly referred to as the Nicean Creed.
Later in 451 the council of Chalcedon rejected the heresies of Apollinaris and Nestorius. The council anethematized the who taught that Jesus had only one nature and those who taught that His two natures were mixed. It went on to describe the Hypostatic union.
Not necessarily because interpretations tend to be variable, plus there is more than one Catholic Bible.
The N.T. did not come form the Hebrew but from Koine Greek.
Yes, but it's important to look at that process, including the timing:
The council of Nicaea dealt primarily with the issue of the deity of Christ. Over a century earlier the term "Trinity" (Τριάς in Greek; trinitas in Latin) was used in the writings of Origen (185–254) and Tertullian (160–220), and a general notion of a "divine three", in some sense, was expressed in the second century writings of Polycarp, Ignatius, and Justin Martyr. In Nicaea, questions regarding the Holy Spirit were left largely unaddressed until after the relationship between the Father and the Son was settled around the year 362. So the doctrine in a more full-fledged form was not formulated until the Council of Constantinople in 360 AD,[79] and a final form formulated in 381 AD, primarily crafted by Gregory of Nyssa. -- First Council of Nicaea - Wikipedia
In Catholicism, it's referred to as "the mystery of the trinity", and "mystery" is there for a reason.
And where did you get this "information" from? Link please.
Are you aware that those who were drafted had no choice in the matter unless they were willing to go to prison? Are you also aware of the fact that there were quite a few JW's who went into the German army as well, although I'll give the JW's credit in that their numbers proportionally were the lowest of any religious group.
But I can't help but notice that you heap hot coals on Catholics but avoid doing so to the Protestants, and it begs the question as to why your outrage is so selective? And even though you don't see yourselves as JW's as being Protestants, the reality is that you are from the Protestant tradition.
Orthodox Christian doctrine defines God succinctly as: Within the one Being that is God, there exists eternally three co-equal and co-eternal Persons, namely, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
Regarding the Son, also called the Word (Rev.19:13; the Word was God Jn.1:1) the doctrine of the incarnation describes that event when the eternal Word (the pre-incarnate Christ) took on human nature, sin excepted, (Jn.1:14). Further describing this event Theologians teach the hypostatic union - an attempt to explain the divine nature and human nature coming together in the one person of the God-man Jesus Christ. Jesus will forever possess these two inseparable yet distinct, unmixed, undiluted, natures uniquely qualifying Him as the Mediator between God and man. This also explains those references which refer to Christ as divine or human for He is both.
In eternity past the Persons of the One Being of God covenanted that the Father would send and give a people to the Son, the Son willingly would go and accomplish their redemption, and the Holy Spirit would empower Jesus and apply His redeeming work to a particular people. (Ps.2; Isa.53:10-12)
Jesus' physical death on the cross accomplished the propitiatory (satisfaction) sacrifice in behalf of the elect, paying the penalty of all their sins. Being fully God and having no sin of His own death could not hold Him in punishment. Therefore God, being satisfied with the full payment of His broken law (Heb.2:17; Rom.6:23), God raised Him from the dead (Acts 13:22-41). Because of who He is and what He has done we have the "Carmen Christi":
"Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in the appearance of a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him a name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus 'Every knee will bow', of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." Phil.2:5-11
Reminiscent of Isaiah 45:23: Almighty God speaking in the Old Testament says: "I have sworn by Myself, The word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness and will not turn back, that to Me, every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance."
It is NOT what a "book" says is what we hinge our belief and faith in. The "Bible" is a book and it was NOT sent by God.
What should be tantamount to all claiming to be a worshiper of the One True God and a follower of His Son, should be what GOD HIMSELF says about Jesus and what JESUS HIMSELF says about himself.
Firstly, we do not worship a book that man arrogated himself to give name to; to make holy; to blasphemously call "The Word of God," and to authorize. We worship "The Father" in heaven.
Secondly, God did NOT send into the world a book. He sent his son and he COMMANDED at Luke 9:35 that we listen to that son. In fact, in that same scripture, God identifies Jesus as "His Son."
Thirdly, at Jesus' baptism, a voice out of heaven said, "This my Son ..."
Fourthly, when questioning his chosen and closest companions, the Apostles, Jesus ask them, "Who do you say the son of man is?" How did Peter answer? Did Peter say God? No, Peter and the other Apostles knew who Jesus was. Peter answered, "You are the Son of the Living God." (Matthew 16:13-17) Notice two people are mentioned here: A son and his God.
Fifthly, the Apostle Paul wrote at 1 Cor 8:6 that there is only ONE GOD and he is the "Father.
"Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live."
Sixth, the Apostle John at John 20:31 said that all that he wrote down in his book was for one purpose" That people would believe that Jesus is the SON OF GOD. (Not God).
"But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Messiah, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name."
Seventh, even at Jesus' temptation by the Devil, the Devil correctly identified Jesus. Read Matthew 4:5-6.
Jesus prophesied that many would claim they know him, but he would declare to them, "I never knew you." (Matthew 7:21-23)
If one is truly a disciple (student) of Christ (teachings), they would would know who he is: The Son of God. They would unhesitatingly God dishonoring and blasphemous teachings that elevate a book above the person of Jesus Christ as if IT (the book) is the teacher and dishonoring the ONE TRUE GOD by making the one he created God and equal to him.
These persons forget that Jesus' kingdom is no part of THIS WORLD, the very world that has created this lie that Jesus (the Son of God) is ALSO God.
They cling to a teaching and doctrine of THIS WORLD.
The TRUTH that Jesus is the Son of God is from above. (Matthew 16:17). The LIE he is God is from below (This world, in which Satan is its god).
Remember, Satan offered Jesus ALL of the kingdoms of this world. Satan would not have offered them if they were not his. (Matthew 4:8 and 2 Cor 4:4)
And using the name "Jehovah" also is in error as there's no "J" sound in Hebrew. Instead, it would be pronounced starting with a "Y". The name "God" comes from the German language. And, if my memory is correct, there are 17 names for God found in the Tanakh, so it appears that God ain't that picky about which name He should be called by.It was the OT--where--I am that I am was put into translation =error.
I don't believe in Satan, but there's a lot of other things I don't believe in either as I'm not polytheistic.Satan does not stop--thus--error teachings get in--The wise look, make correction--The unwise think they already are standing strong.
I believe about 80% of the JW's refused to serve in the military in Germany in the WWII period, which is quite commendable as compared to other groups, thus leaving 20% that did.Most JW,s walked into the concentration camps, and to prisions
sure--Jesus
Ones repented past does not count to God, he does not hold it against them, neither do his followers, hold ones past against them if repentant.
The false religions on this earth--do not repent--they lie and say its Gods will.
If Germany rose up today with naziism and war-- All would see who listens to Jesus and who does not.
You have failed to understand--If the false religions claiming to serve Jesus told the young men--do NOT kill for Adolf Hitler--no ww2--55million of our human family members would have lived. They threw Jesus away to accomplish ww2.