I assume this question to be for my consideration, and that you do no expect an answer thereto. Who can say what his faults are at any time? Who can even know what “fault” (“sin”) might be? Even for the Jews, who have an explicit religious code that they follow, this is practically impossible, for despite the existence of the 613 apparently clear mitzvot (commandments) which have been discerned by the Rabbinate to exist in the Pentateuch, the multivarious ramifications of these rules are nearly impossible to discern and apply within an individual life. This is the subject of Talmud, and if you know the extent of Talmud, you will realize that no man can know it and maintain Torah to perfection.
As for me, I have many of what might be called “faults” or “sins” within the Christian context; I had many at the time in question. Even so , I had faith in “God” at the time, and performed all the major actions that I did as I thought God would desire. That should be good enough. Are you suggesting that a man need be utterly without sin in order to expect God’s protection? Would you be so bold as to suggest that because JFK and MLK had extramarital sex, that they did not merit God’s protection from being shot to death? Rather, I think that because of those actions, they did not merit the families that they had, not that they be shot to death. This suggestion that Christian (or Jewish, or Muslim…) man need be free of sin in order to merit God’s protection is an unreasonable consideration, as no man can ever be without sin…without fault. A God which conducts himself thusly is utterly unreasonable, and would seem to be utterly useless to a sinful, faulty mankind.