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The first cause argument

firedragon

Veteran Member
The problem with the first cause argument is that it is not about a first cause. #1 says “everything that has a beginning, has a cause for it’s beginning”. This means not everything has a beginning; some things do, other things do not. So how can you call something a first cause when there were other things that has been around for as long as it has?

If you read the post fully you will understand.
 

firedragon

Veteran Member
The problem I see with P1 is that everyone will proclaim their being of choice does not have a beginning.

What do you mean "being of choice"?
How could that being not have a beginning?

I have never heard this type of argumentation. Thus please explain if you dont mind.
 

ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
No .. you say that "time and space are not separate". We don't define them as one. We define them separately and then show how they interact with each other.

We actually do define them in science as coordinates on one manifold. How many times do I need to repeat that? You 'definition' was of a unit of time, not how time is seen in physics.
In any case, you can't show that 'time' is identical to measured time.

Meaningless. We can measure time in all sorts of different ways, and they all conform to GR.
Measured time is dependent on the frame of reference.

Time is dependant on frame of reference. You seem to want to just magic some over version of time into existence by simply asserting it.
Talking about a beginning or and end is relatively meaningless.

No, it isn't.
All you are doing in effect, is saying that physical space and time behave identically

No, I'm not.
 

ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
The premises on the KCA are not mere assertions , but rather they are supported by arguments

If you whant to remain agnostic you are expected deal and refute these arguments

Well, actually all I need to do is show that they are mere guesses (at best). Which they are.
hise article provides 3 arguments for premise 1 and 4 arguments for premise 2, if you whant to remain agnostic have to refute these arguments.

The Kalam Cosmological Argument | Reasonable Faith

All of this has already been done to death here already. There are clear counterexamples for premise 1, premise 2 is an open question in science, even in the sense that time is finite in the past (and misunderstanding infinity is not a supporting argument), and even if it is finite in the past that doesn't really mean that it began to exist because we treat space-time as a whole manifold, and time as a coordinate through it.
Yes and if someone claims to be agnostic about the theory of evolution you would expect him to refute the arguments that support the theory of evolution.

Yes. The evidence for evolution is vast and compelling. The KCA is based on guesswork and wishful thinking. It's not impossible that the universe had a cause. I can't disprove it, but there are very, very good reasons for questioning it.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
Time is dependant on frame of reference. You seem to want to just magic some over version of time into existence by simply asserting it..
Not at all. The definition of 'time' is a convenience.
Which frame of reference do we choose for defining it?
What does it mean when we say a year is 365 days long?
How long is a piece of string?
Why do atomic clocks measure different lengths of time in different frames?

Time is not an absolute quantity, but we define it as if it is.
That's what I mean by "measured time".
We say that the speed of light is a constant. The only reason why that is so, is because we have defined time and space as if they are definitive.
Our operational definition of time says nothing about the nature of time.
It is a convenience and no more.
 

ratiocinator

Lightly seared on the reality grill.
Not at all. The definition of 'time' is a convenience.
Which frame of reference do we choose for defining it?

The whole point of relativity is that it is independent from the frame of reference and it allows us to move between different ones in a defined way. What is defined is the underlying manifold. The landscape of the earth is independent of whether you measure position using latitude and longitude or some other system. Likewise, the manifold in general relativity is defined regardless of what coordinates we apply to it.
Why do atomic clocks measure different lengths of time in different frames?

For reasons that are well understood, and, in fact, predicted by, relativity.
Time is not an absolute quantity, but we define it as if it is.

No, we don't. Are you even reading the answers you're getting?
 

rational experiences

Veteran Member
O earth.

1 position science machine taken from.earths mass.

1 of O.

Then nothing.

Yet a man is bio dies not as consciousness live in nothing.

First advice number by mass versus measure 0 nothing.

0 space zero he says one plane. Empty.

So how do you count empty?
00000000000000...still empty still zero he says.

000000000 to a gas says the measure states mass gone. Emptied. One way.

As you cannot add back into by 000000000 to say as a theist I pretended I added onto gases back to position 1 earth.

As you use an earth machine you put earth mass into 0 zero to transmit out and back yourselves.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
No, we don't..
..so you say that such-and-such happened millions of years ago..
What does that mean to you?
Is it represented by time in our frame of reference or what?
Is there such a thing as a universal frame of reference, or not?
If we didn't define time in one particular frame of reference, it would be relatively meaningless.
It is a convenience, and we naturally choose our frame of reference to define it.

You can object to this as much as you like, but that doesn't change anything.
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
..so you say that such-and-such happened millions of years ago..
What does that mean to you?
Is it represented by time in our frame of reference or what?
Is there such a thing as a universal frame of reference, or not?
If we didn't define time in one particular frame of reference, it would be relatively meaningless.
It is a convenience, and we naturally choose our frame of reference to define it.

You can object to this as much as you like, but that doesn't change anything.

Well, it does. Because I act differently than you. We are playing sociological schemata and this:
Thomas Theorem: If men define situations as real, they are real in their consequences.

That is neither Christian or Islam. That is from a different culture, which started in classical Greece. That was also a civilization.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
It has a cause.
You claim that it is possible that "time" has a beginning.
What would that mean?

That there is no way to extend the notion of time previous to some point (probably a limit point).

Would it mean that something can appear from nothingness?
It is a meaningless concept.

No, it would not. There would be no 'before', hence no 'coming out'.

A beginning implies a point in time. The only reason we can talk about "a point in time" is because we are measuring it relative to something. In this case, space.

Or in relation to later times. BTW, space *also* started at the same point as time. As did matter and energy.

It does not follow that because space has a beginning, the concept of existing disappears along with it. Mathematical equations can't show that.

Space, time, matter, and energy all starting at the same 'point', it means exactly that.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
..so you say that such-and-such happened millions of years ago..
What does that mean to you?

Well, in such cases, the 'proper time' of the Earth would be the most natural choice. It represents the time actually experienced by an observer on the Earth for that time period.

The Earth is moving slow enough and has a weak enough gravitational field that this is almost identical to the comoving frame in the universal expansion for our galaxy.

Is it represented by time in our frame of reference or what?

Proper time. In other words, the time actually experienced by something moving along with the Earth.

Proper time, by the way, is an invariant: all reference frames agree about what the proper time along a path will be.

Is there such a thing as a universal frame of reference, or not?

No, there is not. But at any event, there is a naturally defined comoving frame. it's just that different points have different comoving frames.

And , like I pointed out, for any path through spacetime there is also the proper time along the path. Different paths can give different results, as in the twin paradox.

If we didn't define time in one particular frame of reference, it would be relatively meaningless.

Which is why the proper time along a path is a good choice. it is invariant: all reference frames can compute it from their observations and will come up with the same answer. it is also the time actually experienced by an observer moving along that path.

It does, however, depend on the path and may not agree with any one reference frame if acceleration is happening.

You can object to this as much as you like, but that doesn't change anything.

Same.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Two planets have traveled the same distance despite the fact that one is traveling faster than the other. This is paradoxical

Note that is both are at rest, then each is moving 10 times as fast as the other, but the distances moved are the same.

This is because 10*0=0. The above 'paradox' for infinite time is simply the fact that 10*infinity=infinity.

Why such a 'paradox' implies this cannot happen in reality is yet to be argued.
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
Not with mathematical levels, no.

But 'beyond a reasonable doubt'? Yes.

Yeah, but I am not that kind of rationalist, rather I am the correct one, because my definitions are objectively useful. And I hold the truth and authority over the world, because my opinions are not really opinions and your opinions are wrong, because my methodology is by definition the correct one. ;) :D
 

night912

Well-Known Member
..so you say that such-and-such happened millions of years ago..
What does that mean to you?
Is it represented by time in our frame of reference or what?
Is there such a thing as a universal frame of reference, or not?
If we didn't define time in one particular frame of reference, it would be relatively meaningless.
It is a convenience, and we naturally choose our frame of reference to define it.

You can object to this as much as you like, but that doesn't change anything.
If that is what you accept, then you must also accept an infinite universe. An infinite amount of "beginnings" must also be acceptable.

Here's what I mean by infinite beginnings:

1. The universe has a beginning.
2. The beginning of the universe has a beginning.
3. The beginning of the beginning of the universe has a beginning.
This goes on and on forever.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
If that is what you accept, then you must also accept an infinite universe. An infinite amount of "beginnings" must also be acceptable.
I don't have to accept anything that makes no sense to me.
That, to me, is theoretical claptrap. ;)

It's a bit like perpeutual motion, that has no specific cause or reason.
I would agree that an Eternal G-d is hard to grasp. It implies a reality which is hidden from us, which clearly causes some questions in itself.
However, it is a more satisfactory explanation to me, rather than existence being all one big coincidence. That is a meaningless concept that leaves us with nothing.
 

night912

Well-Known Member
I don't have to accept anything that makes no sense to me.
That, to me, is theoretical claptrap. ;)
Sure, you don't have to, but you do accept things that makes no sense to you, hence your comment below. ;)


It's a bit like perpeutual motion, that has no specific cause or reason.
I would agree that an Eternal G-d is hard to grasp. It implies a reality which is hidden from us, which clearly causes some questions in itself.

You accept a mysterious reality that's hidden from you, one that you can make no sense of. So like I said, you don't have to accept things that don't make sense to you, but you do accept things that don't make sense to you. ;)

However, it is a more satisfactory explanation to me, rather than existence being all one big coincidence. That is a meaningless concept that leaves us with nothing.
Truth is not dependent on your feelings of satisfactory. And you just demonstrated this. You can satisfied believing that you made a reasonable objection to what I said, but the TRUTH is, you putting words in my mouth and declaring victory only demonstrate in you failing to do just that.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
You accept a mysterious reality that's hidden from you, one that you can make no sense of..
I didn't say I can make no sense of it.
I just said that it is hidden from us.

There is not much point in rushing to understand something in its entirety.
If we do that, we are likely to become mentally unbalanced.
Success doesn't lie there. It lies in accepting our limitations.
 
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