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The Gaza Strip

Fluffy

Fluffy

A fool
Simple question: Israel remained in control of the Gaza strip for 38 years. Why, over that time, was it not treated in the same way as the Rhineland i.e. totally demilitarised barring a UN peacekeeping force whilst remaining in the hands of Palestine?
 
Fluffy

Fluffy

A fool
I do not understand your question.
Click to expand...
Okay well my understanding is that Israel occupied the Gaza strip because their tension with the Palestinians and the unfortunate placing of the strip meant that it was too difficult to defend themselves from attack from this direction. This is identical to the reason why France wished to occupy the Rhineland at the end of WW1. What I do not understand is why, since the solution to the Rhineland was largely effective (barring appeasement), the same was not done in the case of the Gaza strip?
 
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