• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

The Lord's Prayer - an explanation

michel

Administrator Emeritus
Staff member
An explanation to the added bit at the end that seems to be said by some not not by others.
For those of you, like me who learned to finish the Lord's prayer with:-
"For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, forever. Amen.",

I accidentally came upon the reason.
http://www.unexplainedstuff.com/Religious-Phenomena/Power-of-Prayer.html


For Christians worldwide the "perfect prayer" is the one that Jesus (c. 6 B.C.E.–c. 30 C.E.) gave to his apostles and which has been known for centuries as the Lord's Prayer: "And…as [Jesus] was praying in a certain place, when he ceased, one of his disciples said unto him, Lord, teach us to pray as John [the Baptist] also taught his disciples. And he said unto them, "When ye pray, say,
Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so on Earth. Give us this day our daily bread. And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive everyone that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil" (Luke 11: 1–4, King James Version). [Matthew 6:13 adds: "For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, forever. Amen."]
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
I did not detect an explanation for the short and longer version of the prayer... it's simply noted and not explained.

The explanation is simply that the KJV uses a longer Greek text that is dated hundreds of years later than earlier, more reliable shorter texts used by later translations.
 

Mujahid Mohammed

Well-Known Member
michel said:
An explanation to the added bit at the end that seems to be said by some not not by others.
For those of you, like me who learned to finish the Lord's prayer with:-
"For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, forever. Amen.",

I accidentally came upon the reason.
http://www.unexplainedstuff.com/Religious-Phenomena/Power-of-Prayer.html


For Christians worldwide the "perfect prayer" is the one that Jesus (c. 6 B.C.E.–c. 30 C.E.) gave to his apostles and which has been known for centuries as the Lord's Prayer: "And…as [Jesus] was praying in a certain place, when he ceased, one of his disciples said unto him, Lord, teach us to pray as John [the Baptist] also taught his disciples. And he said unto them, "When ye pray, say,
Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done, as in heaven, so on Earth. Give us this day our daily bread. And forgive us our sins; for we also forgive everyone that is indebted to us. And lead us not into temptation; but deliver us from evil" (Luke 11: 1–4, King James Version). [Matthew 6:13 adds: "For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, forever. Amen."]
where in the article did it explain the Lord's Prayer. Did I miss it? can this prayer in the verses you have mentioned be explained within the context of how we define the trinity for this is one of the verses that causes me great confusion on the issue.
 

may

Well-Known Member
my bible in matthew 6;13 says this 13 And do not bring us into temptation, but deliver us from the wicked one.’
 
Top