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The meaning of (אלהים) "elohim" according to Jewish and Ancient Sources

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
This thread will be used to discuss what ancient Israeli / Jewish sources state about the "term" (אלהים) "elohim" including its etymology, meaning, and uses in Jewish texts. Please be aware, this will be using actual source material and not sites like wikpedia and such that are not accurate in their interpretation of the data and often inserts modern English concepts into an ancient culture that is foreign to modern Western English culture. (Note: Hebrew is read from right to left)

So, though I have presented this before, the starting point is the etymology and definition of the word (אלהים) according to "Jewish and Samaritan Hebrew" sources as well as Akkadian / Mesopotamian sources. The reason is that these are the earliest sources for what the word meant for Ivrim / Yisraelim (Israelis) / Yehudim (Jews) in ancient times.

In the linqustic sphere all ancient Hebrew terms are derived from 3 letter roots known as a shoresh (a root). This means that all words that derive from a 3 letter root receives its meaning from the original three letter root. Modern Hebrew doesn't use this system anymore, even though the foundations of Modern Hebrew come from what was already established in ancient Hebrew.

That being said, the term el (אל) and the cognate (אלהים) are derived from the following three letter roots (א-י-ל) and (א-ו-ל).

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According to the Etymological Dictionary of Biblical Hebrew: Based on the Commentaries of Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch Page 9 for the three letter root (א-י-ל).

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Now using a modern Hebrew dictionary used in the modern time of Israel called Milon HaIvri Hamercaz by Avraham Even-Shushan we find the following:

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Below the same dictionary describes that (אל) denotes power, strength, the ability to do, and also makes a linquistic connection with the term (אלהים).

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Thus, the term (אלהים) does not mean "god" or "deity" on its own in "Jewish and Samaritan Hebrew." This also hold true in Summerian / Akkadian languages. The term could be used to describe what someone considers to be a "deity" to them BUT that is because in Hebrew they are claiming said diety has "power, the ability to do."

It is only in the process of English translation that the term was connected to the word "god" even though someone or something that is not "considered" a god or deity can correctly be called an elohim in ancient Hebrew, simply due to the perception of it having power.

With both the etyomology and the ancient / modern defintions of the words from Jewish and Samaritan standpoints, I will address how the word is used and whether when talking about Hashem it is plural or singular. I will also address the concept of what Jewish sources state toward whether or not elohim is actually a name.
 

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IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
This thread will be used to discuss what ancient Israeli / Jewish sources state about the "term" (אלהים) "elohim" including its etymology, meaning, and uses in Jewish texts. Please be aware, this will be using actual source material and not sites like wikpedia and such that are not accurate in their interpretation of the data and often inserts modern English concepts into an ancient culture that is foreign to modern Western English culture. (Note: Hebrew is read from right to left)

So, though I have presented this before, the starting point is the etymology and definition of the word (אלהים) according to "Jewish and Samaritan Hebrew" sources as well as Akkadian / Mesopotamian sources. The reason is that these are the earliest sources for what the word meant for Ivrim / Yisraelim (Israelis) / Yehudim (Jews) in ancient times.

In the linqustic sphere all ancient Hebrew terms are derived from 3 letter roots known as a shoresh (a root). This means that all words that derive from a 3 letter root receives its meaning from the original three letter root. Modern Hebrew doesn't use this system anymore, even though the foundations of Modern Hebrew come from what was already established in ancient Hebrew.

That being said, the term el (אל) and the cognate (אלהים) are derived from the following three letter roots (א-י-ל) and (א-ו-ל).

View attachment 94494

According to the Etymological Dictionary of Biblical Hebrew: Based on the Commentaries of Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch Page 9 for the three letter root (א-י-ל).

View attachment 94495

Now using a modern Hebrew dictionary used in the modern time of Israel called Milon HaIvri Hamercaz by Avraham Even-Shushan we find the following:

View attachment 94497

Below the same dictionary describes that (אל) denotes power, strength, the ability to do, and also makes a linquistic connection with the term (אלהים).

View attachment 94498

Thus, the term (אלהים) does not mean "god" or "deity" on its own in "Jewish and Samaritan Hebrew." This also hold true in Summerian / Akkadian languages. The term could be used to describe what someone considers to be a "deity" to them BUT that is because in Hebrew they are claiming said diety has "power, the ability to do."

It is only in the process of English translation that the term was connected to the word "god" even though someone or something that is not "considered" a god or deity can correctly be called an elohim in ancient Hebrew, simply due to the perception of it having power.

With both the etyomology and the ancient / modern defintions of the words from Jewish and Samaritan standpoints, I will address how the word is used and whether when talking about Hashem it is plural or singular. I will also address the concept of what Jewish sources state toward whether or not elohim is actually a name.
I've commented so much on this topic so many times already (including to you) that I think I'm just gonna bow out this time.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
This thread will be used to discuss what ancient Israeli / Jewish sources state about the "term" (אלהים) "elohim" including its etymology ...

I'll bet that, instead, it will be laced with faith statements proffered in obnoxiously large, too often bolded, text, while being devoid of anything resembling respect for modern philology.

Still, it should be interesting to see what is deemed to be an "ancient Israeli / Jewish."
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
So, sticking with the name of the thread which is in part is "Jewish and Ancient Sources" this means that what I will providing is Jewish sources and ancient sources. I.e. the Jewish Hebrew is a Jewish language and as an aside I will address Samaritan Hebrew as well since one can't really address Jewish Hebrew w/o acknowledging the existance of a different dialect which stems from the same Ivri / Benei Yisrael source.

In terms of the word ancient in the thread title meaning what did Ancient Jews and Samaritans say on the topic? Of course with that being title what is "theorized" modernly is not relevant to the topic, based on the title of the thread alone, and the fact the earliest sources on how historically Jewish Hebrew and Samaritan Hebrew worked / was understand are going to be Jewish and Samaritan source. (Note: It must be noted that the Milon HaIvri Hamercaz by Avraham Even-Shushan is a modern source, as shown in the OP and is not religios in nature.

As a starting point, in his book, Moreh Nevuchim (Guide to the Perplexed) Section 1.2, Rabbi Mosheh ben-Maimon / Rambam (1138–1204 CE). Translation from Judeo-Arabic to Hebrew by Rabbi Yoseph Qaffahh (1917 – 2000 CE). Concerning the term (אלהים) states.

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(Translation)
[(אלהים) - Name which is associated with Hashem and to those who have control / rule / power]
The Rambam describes how he been challenged by some who brought an interesting challenge. He sees fit for what he was going to discuss in the section to bring up this challenge and consider its answer. Yet, before he did that he explains, in the section I higlighted that, "It is already known to all Ivri (those who know Ivrith - the Hebrew language) that the name / title (אלהים) elohim is associated with Hashem, and the malachim (often translated as angels), to human judges those who rule nations / cities," The Rambam further brings up the point that when Onkelus (35–120 CE) translated the Torah from Hebrew into Aramaic, when translating Genesis 3:5 (והייתם כאלהים יודעי טוב ורע) he [Onkelus] rendered the Hebrew (כאלהים) "like elohim" in Aramaic as (כרברבין) "like leaders / great men-women / princes / officers /" which is derived from the Aramaic word (רברבא).​

Rabbi Yoseph Qafahh, details the following in his notes about the above statements of the Rambam.

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(Translation of note)
"Rabbi Saadya Gaon (882/892 – 942 CE) adds that also (נכבדים) "those who are honored / respected" are called (אלהים) and that is how he translated (בני אלהים) "benei elohim" [in Judeo-Arabic] (בני אלאשראף)."
Rabbi Qafahh further notes, concerning the translation of Onkelus of Genesis 3:5:

1721608860821.png

(Translation of note)​
"Genesis 3:5 Rabbi Saadya Gaon (882/892 – 942 CE) states / interprets (כאלהים) "like elohim" as (מלאכים) "like melachim" i.e. "like angels."

Thus, we see here three different generations of how the term (אלהים) was understood starting from the 2nd Temple period to the time of the Geonim until the time of the Rishonim by three different leaders in the Jewish communities of the land of Isreal, Egypt/Iraq, and Spain/Morocco/Egypt. Now it can become more clear where modern dictionaries and lexicons, like the ones I showed above, got their information from.

In the next post I will cover some other Jewish sources from other locations.
 
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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Reviewing the commentary of the Torah which is based on the teaching of the Ba'al Shem Tov (1698 – 1760 CE), the following can be found.

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(Translation)
When commenting on a statement made by Rashi about Genesis 1:1 (בראשית ברא אלהים) a teaching of the Ba'al Shem is stated (yellow highlight) "The name / title / designation (אלהים) elohim it is the root of all judgements."
In Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch's (1808-88) commentary of the Torah he discusses the etymology of the word (אלהים). He states:

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(Translation)
Rabbi Hirsch discusses the resoning and meaning behind the plural of the word (אלהים) by stating that it details the powers of Hashem as the creator of reality. His descriptions details the various elements that make up the unverse, and the laws of how reality work, as having their connection and source back to Hashem and thus (אלהים) as a plural describes all of these powers over reality that Hashem also placed in reality and are connected back to Hashem. In the last part of the highlighted section he explains that the term (אלהים) is connected to the concept of justice and order in reality. It is related to how Hashem, as the Source of reality, is the controller of all things and is the one who put the rules of reality in place. He ends by stating that also people who establish law and justice in the world / reality we dwell in are also called (אלהים) elohim.​
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Rabbi Ibn-Ezra (1089 / 1092 - 1164 / 1167) in his commentary of the Torah stated concerning the plural of (אלהים). It must be noted that Ibn-Ezra's approach to his commentary of the Torah was textual criticism and analyzing the structure of the peshat of the language. I.e. he dealt a lot with word structure, meaning of words, and grammer.

1721611808527.png


(Translation)
Rabbi Ibn-Ezra states, concerning (אלהים) being the plural of (אלוה), that elohim describes the honor of Hashem in respect to the greatness of the creator in a way like a king whose honor is great. Ibn Ezra also states how in the Torah the verb for elohim "created" (ברא) is singular (He created) and not plural (בראו) which would be (they created). This means that noun, (אלהים) Elohim is doing the creating is singular just like the verb, Thus, noting that Hashem is singular as Elohim but his honor is plural. Further, later in his commentary he states something similar to the other Jewish sources I provided earlier.

1721612340537.png


(Translation)
Rabbi Ibn-Ezra states, in the highlighted section, that the term (אלהים) can be defined "king, human beings who busy themselves with justice, they are also called (אלהים) elohim.
 

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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Continuing with the commentary of Rabbi Ovadia ben Jacob Sforno (1475 - 1549 CE) the following is stated.

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(Translation)
While commenting on the use of (אלהים) in Gensis 1:1, Rabbi Ovadia ben Jacob Sforno stated that words (אלוה) "eloah" singular and (אלהים) "elohim" plural, when used to describe of Hashem, attests to the eternal nature of Hashem. In the highlighted sections he makes the following points, "And it is said about Him [Hashem] (אלהים) "Elohim" in the plural, [this] is to teach that He [Hashem] is the foundation of all eternal foundations and differitiated from them / they ar reliant on Hashem, as it is stated by Yeshayahu (Isaiah) 6:3 "the world / reality is filled with his glory / honor." Rabbi Ovadia ben Jacob Sforno continues by stating that all of reality is reliant and only exists because of Hashem. In the second highlighted section Rabbi Ovadia ben Jacob Sforno continues, by stating, similar to previous commentaries I shared above that, "[human] judges who are experts can be called (אלהים) elohim, because they make judges in the shadow / image of (אלהים) [Hashem]."
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Now going further back in Jewish history, to the Dead Sea Scrolls, we can even see uses of the term (אלהים) elohim for singular entities such as individual people.

Below is 11Q13, also known as 11QMelch or the Melchi-tzedek document. It is a fragmentary manuscript among the Dead Sea Scrolls (from Cave 11) which mentions a leader of Hashem's army named Melchizedek. The text is an apocalyptic commentary on the Jubilee year of Vayiqra (Lev.) 25. The language of 11Q13 is Hebrew, date of composition is circa 100 BCE.

1721647672404.png
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Getting back to the definitions found in Jewish sources. I would now like to present the statement made by the Rabbi Mosheh ben-Nachman (1194–1270 CE) the Ramban in his commentary on the Torah. The ramban quote from the the Tanna Rabbi Nehunya ben HaKanah (lived during the 1st to 2nd Cent. CE).

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(Translation)
The Ramban quotes the Midrash of Rabbi Nehunya ben HaKanah (lived during the 1st to 2nd Cent. CE) where questions are asked about why the langauge of the first chapter of Genesis uses the statement (הייתה תהו ובהו) to describe the state of a particular point of the creation process. In the highlighted area it state "And it says (אלהים) "elohim," [meaning] master of all powers / strengths / abilities to do, because the basis for the word is (אל) "el", which it is power / strength / ability to do, and the word is complex / consisting of many different parts (אל הם), such (אל) "el" connected with, and (הם) is a hint / clue / cue to all the remaining powers [of reality / the universe / etc.] That is to say [Hashem] is the power / strength of all powers / strengths / ability to do. [in short all powers of reality / the universe / are derived from and connected to Hashem.]"
 

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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Now concerning whether or not the posts in this thread respect, "Philology" here is a description of what even means. One will find that this has been followed in this thread by analyzing more than ~2,000 years worth of expertise in the Jewish language of Hebrew.

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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
In Hebrew there are a number of instances in the Torah where singular nouns are described using plural adjectives. I.e. having (ים) doesn't make the word automatically plural. Here are a few examples:

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Also:

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The same is also true for Yom Kippur, which is the term is described as

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The singular (יום) has an adjective (הכפרים) which is plural.
 
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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Looking again textually at the Torah, the first instances of how known Jewish writings use the term (אלהים) as a singular noun, described by singular-3rd person verbs (he did something), within the first 7 verses of the Torah (Beresheeth 1:1-7). As we know, verbs are important to sentences since they show what the nouns are doing. Below, I have marked every place where 3rd person verbs are used for (אלהים).

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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
Concerning the above that I posted, in this thread I have used the same rules of research of Philology and Emperical Evidence used in scholastic circles. The goal of course being to show what Jewish sources state about Jewish Hebrew concerning the meaning of the term (אלהים). The following is the historical timeline of the sources I reviewed, excluding the Tanakh.

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As a part of this investigation, I have gone through experts in the language that also were found in various parts of the Jewish exile / diaspora. Thus, ignoring religious slants, I have provided a scholarly approach to the topic.

Locations of the Sources used in this thread - the commentaries on the Hebrew langauge presented represent a large timeline and broad range of Jewish cultures from the below parts of the world. Each X represents that location of the commentaries.
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Note: Jewish Hebrew being, historically a language of the Jewish people, did not have a non-Jewish knowledge base prior to ~500 to 600 CE, (being generous) What this means is that the only sources for Hebrew, how to speak it, how to learn it, what the words mean, the grammer, etc. throughout history was ONLY and exclusively found among Jews. (Samaritan Hebrew among Samaritans) The oldest known written source of information about the meanings of words and grammer is the Talmud, which itself required someone to already know Hebrew and Aramaic in order to read it. Modern linquists thus, are essentially forced to reference Jewish sources in order to even open the door to understanding ancient Hebrew. Ignoring sources, like the ones I posted above, means that one is ignoring the only real sources in ancient history for the Hebrew language.
 
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