No, Baha'u'llah did not specifically say that the prophecy about the Son of man in the clouds points to Him.
I know that TB
I still say when the Kitab-i-Iqan says "Jesus, the Author of the Gospel", given the context, I do not think it was intended to be taken literally. Another possibility is that it was a translation error, so it did not mean author in the original language. More problematic to me is that untranslated tablet that says: "The Four Gospels were written after Him [Christ]. John, Luke, Mark and Matthew - these four wrote after Christ what they remembered of His utterances" because we know the gospels were not written by those four disciples.
I would appreciate a translation
but I do not know how I could locate that tablet. Maybe when I have time I can do some digging.
Hmm. Well, it could be a mistranslation. But I doubt it. Yet, if I confirm this I will let you know. At the moment I cannot deny what you say is a possibility. I dont understand how someone like Effendi can make such an error. Its next to impossible, unless one intends to mistranslate.
If you could please be kind enough to find me the page number only, I can get it confirmed rather than making assumptions.
Sheesh, and I thought I had heard of all the logical fallacies.
(again, I am sister Susan....)
I was kind of thinking you were a sister like one minute ago. But you see, I have got enough embarrassment calling ladies brother in this forum that my foot has never come out of my mouth. Also, I have a bad memory of avatar names. So you should blame it on old age and pardon me with some excuse please.
By the way, I was not implying that the Qur'an is not authentic. It is a Baha'i belief that the Qur'an is the only reliable scripture aside from the Writings of the Bab and Baha'u'llah.
Dont be mistaken. I know that the Bahai's take Quran in authority as authentic. What I meant is, when discussing the Bible, to bring in the Quran say "how do you know this" is called the Tu Quoque fallacy. I am not saying that to offend you. I am saying that since its easier to explain a lengthy explanation concisely in three words why its irrelevant.
Anyway if you do wish to compare like that, its alright. I can give you enough and more reasons.
1. Quran manuscripts go back to Muhammeds life time with carbon dating. Manuscripts Arabe 328.
2. Quran manuscripts date to Muhammeds time based on palaeographic dating.
3. Apply form criticism on the Quran and see if you could come up with a general outcome like you would with the Bible. Try the methodology of lets say "Wellhausen" and/or any of the latter, more sophisticated methodologies on the Qur'an.
4. Ask a philologist to read the Quran, analyse it and tell you how many authors wrote it.
5. Quran manuscripts are dated to Muhammeds time by the Maail of the script. Unmistaken.
6. Quran, in its text claims to be the Furqan given to Muhammed.
Thats why. I dont think you disbelieve in the Quran. You just asked the question as part of the discussion. No problem. But can you even think of meeting these criteria with any of the Bibles? Tanakh or the "New Testament", 40 or 50 authors, 66, 73, or 75 books, 27 or 29 books in the NT. Think of these points which are just very few and tell me if any of them can be met. I can vouch for you that none of them can be met.
Go ahead and send me the link but I probably won't have much time to read or reply unless these other threads slow down.
I will get you the link. But its not necessary that you go there and make a question. Hockey sis?
Quran and New Testament, are they the same in authorship, manuscript evidence, textual reliability?